NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Trainer Test 2 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
At 10:00 A.M., the nurse discovers a 75-year-old woman who is hospitalized with congestive heart failure on the floor beside the bed. She has a bruise on her leg, but x-rays reveal no fractures. How should the nurse record the incident in the client's chart?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Accurate documentation includes specific details: time, client status, mechanism of fall, assessment findings (bruise size, orientation), and actions taken (physician notification, x-rays). This option is thorough and objective, unlike the others, which are vague or incomplete.
Question 2 of 5
An adult has been diagnosed with gout. Which comment by the client indicates to the nurse that the client understands management of the condition?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Oatmeal is low-purine, suitable for gout management, unlike chicken, liver, or shrimp, which are high-purine and increase uric acid. Nuts are moderate and less ideal.
Question 3 of 5
A 25-year-old man is in an acute manic episode. The nurse knows that which client behavior would be MOST characteristic of mania?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: characteristic behaviors associated with an acute manic episode include agitation, grandiose delusions, euphoria, and concentration problems; mania is a mood of extreme euphoria and is manifested by more extreme levels of behavior
Extract:
A client has orders for cefoxitin (Mefoxin) 2 g IV piggyback in 100 cc 5% dextrose in water. The primary IV is 5% dextrose in lactated Ringer's and is infusing by gravity.
Question 4 of 5
It is MOST important for the nurse to take which of the following actions?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Strategy: All answers are implementations. Determine the outcome of each answer choice. Is it desired? (1) antibiotic should be administered within one hour (2) unnecessary for safe infusion (3) correct-when using a gravity drip, piggyback fluid level needs to be higher than primary infusion (4) unnecessary for safe infusion
Extract:
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a history of heart failure who is receiving metoprolol (Lopressor) 50 mg PO bid. Which of the following findings would be of GREATest concern to the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A heart rate of 50 bpm indicates bradycardia, a serious side effect of metoprolol, a beta-blocker, requiring immediate evaluation to prevent reduced cardiac output. Options B, C, and D are normal: blood pressure 130/80 mmHg, respiratory rate 18 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation 95% are stable.