NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN SATA Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following side effects immediately?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A rash may indicate a serious hypersensitivity reaction to phenytoin, such as Stevens-Johnson syndrome, requiring immediate reporting.
Question 2 of 5
A client is ready to be discharged from same-day surgery following an inguinal hernia repair. Which criteria must the client meet before the nurse can discharge the client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The ability to walk to the bathroom indicates sufficient recovery of mobility and stability, a key discharge criterion. Pain control and urination are also important, but mobility is critical.
Question 3 of 5
A client with a history of depression is prescribed citalopram (Celexa). The nurse should instruct the client to:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Citalopram can cause serotonin syndrome, requiring monitoring for agitation and tremors.
Question 4 of 5
A client with a history of gout is prescribed colchicine. The nurse should instruct the client to take the medication:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Colchicine is most effective when taken at the onset of a gout attack to reduce inflammation and pain.
Question 5 of 5
For which of the following should the nurse closely assess a client who is reversing from halothane (Fluothane) general anesthesia and receiving clindamycin (Cleocin)?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Halothane, a general anesthetic, can cause respiratory depression during recovery, which is a critical condition to monitor. Clindamycin is not strongly associated with these other effects in this context.