NCLEX-RN
NCLEX-RN Exam Practice Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A client with a history of a kidney transplant is receiving Prednisone. The nurse should monitor the client for:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Prednisone, a corticosteroid, suppresses immunity, increasing infection risk. Hypotension, hyperkalemia, and weight loss are not primary concerns; weight gain is more common.
Question 2 of 5
A woman diagnosed with multiple sclerosis is disturbed with diplopia. The nurse will teach her to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Limiting activities requiring close vision will not alleviate the discomfort of double vision. Frequent naps may be comforting, but they will not prevent double vision. Artificial tears are necessary in the absence of a corneal reflex, but they have no effect on diplopia. An eye patch over either eye will eliminate the effects of double vision during the time the eye patch is worn. An eye patch is safe for a person with an intact corneal reflex.
Question 3 of 5
A client has an order to administer cisplatin (Platinol). Which drug would the nurse expect to be ordered to reduce renal toxicity from the cisplatin infusion?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Amifostine protects kidneys from cisplatin’s nephrotoxicity by neutralizing free radicals. Dexrazoxane (
B) protects the heart, Mesna (
C) prevents bladder toxicity, and Pamidronate (
D) treats hypercalcemia.
Question 4 of 5
The client is prescribed tamsulosin (Flomax) for benign prostatic hyperplasia. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tamsulosin, an alpha-blocker, causes vasodilation, leading to orthostatic hypotension as a common side effect. Hypotension (not hypertension), bradycardia, and hyperglycemia are less likely.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse reviewing the lab results of a client receiving Cytoxan (cyclophosphamide) for Hodgkin's lymphoma finds the following: WBC 4,200, RBC 3,800,000, platelets 25,000, and serum creatinine 1.0 mg. The nurse recognizes that the greatest risk for the client at this time is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A platelet count of 25,000 indicates severe thrombocytopenia, posing a significant risk of bleeding, which is the greatest immediate concern compared to infection, anemia, or renal failure.