NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN SATA Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A client with a hip fracture is scheduled for surgery. Which preoperative teaching should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Incentive spirometry prevents postoperative pulmonary complications like atelectasis, critical for a client with limited mobility post-hip surgery.
Question 2 of 5
A client on a psychiatric care unit approaches the nurse and complains of muscle spasms in his neck, stiffness in other muscles, and that his eyes are rolling upward. The client had two p.r.n. doses of haloperidol (Haldol) in the last 6 hours. Of the drugs that have been ordered for the client as needed (see chart), the nurse should administer:

Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Dystonic adverse effects of haloperidol, especially oculogyric crises, are painful and frightening. I.M. benztropine is the fastest and most effective drug for managing dystonia. Lorazepam is an antianxiety medication and is not effective for treatment of dystonia. Although amantadine and diphenhydramine can be used for extrapyramidal symptoms, oral medications do not work as quickly, and amantadine may worsen psychotic symptoms.
Question 3 of 5
Which of these skills is most closely related to successfully meeting the established priority needs of a group of clients?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Time management skills are critical for prioritizing and addressing the needs of multiple clients efficiently, ensuring that high-priority tasks are completed in a timely manner.
Question 4 of 5
A client had a positive Papanicolaou smear and underwent cryosurgery with laser therapy. What information should the nurse provide the client as a part of discharge teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cryosurgery is a procedure that involves freezing cervical tissues. Vaginal discharge should be clear and watery after the procedure. There is mild pain after the procedure, but opioid analgesics would not be required. Tub and sitz baths are avoided while the area is healing, which takes about 10 weeks. The client will begin to slough off dead cell debris, which may be odorous. This resolves within approximately 8 weeks.
Question 5 of 5
A client with a history of depression is prescribed citalopram (Celexa). The nurse should instruct the client to:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Citalopram can cause serotonin syndrome, requiring monitoring for agitation and tremors.