NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Trainer Test 2 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A client who is diagnosed with cystitis has been given a prescription for phenazopyridine (Pyridium). She asks the nurse why she has been given this medication. What should the nurse reply?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Phenazopyridine is a urinary tract anesthetic, relieving pain and burning during urination until antibiotics resolve cystitis. It's not an antibiotic, analgesic, or kidney protectant.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse plans care for a 36-year-old woman with Graves' disease. The nurse knows that which of the following foods or fluids should be restricted for this client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Tea contains caffeine, which can exacerbate hyperthyroidism symptoms like tachycardia in Graves’ disease. Options A, B, and C are not contraindicated.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving IV vancomycin for a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection. Which of the following findings would be of GREATest concern to the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Facial flushing and itching suggest red man syndrome, a serious reaction to vancomycin, requiring immediate slowing of the infusion or antihistamine administration. Options A, B, and D are normal: blood pressure 130/80 mmHg, heart rate 90 bpm, and urine output 50 mL/hour are stable.
Extract:
A client receiving cromolyn sodium (Intal).
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following statements, if made by the client to the nurse, indicates that teaching has been successful?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Strategy: All answers are implementations. Determine the outcome of each answer choice. Is it desired? (1) inappropriate information (2) inappropriate information (3) cromolyn sodium is not an antihistamine agent, an antiinflammatory, or a bronchodilator, does nothing for a client in respiratory distress (4) correct-cromolyn sodium (Intal) is used to prevent the release of histamine and other allergy-triggering substances
Extract:
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is assigned to a client who has heart failure. During the morning rounds the nurse sees the client develop sudden anxiety, diaphoresis and dyspnea. The nurse auscultates, crackles bilaterally. Which nursing intervention should be performed first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Place the client in a sitting position with legs dangling. This reduces venous return, alleviating pulmonary edema symptoms.