NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A client is experiencing mucosal cell damage secondary to chemotherapy. Because of mucosal ulcers, eating has become increasingly uncomfortable for her. Which of the following interventions would be most effective in getting her to eat?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Such a diet is less irritating to the damaged mucosa and is easier for the child to tolerate, promoting eating despite discomfort.
Question 2 of 5
A client who was started on antipsychotic medication 2 weeks ago is preparing for discharge from the hospital. Compliance with the medication regimen is important despite the mild side effects encountered. In order to increase the likelihood of medication compliance, the nurse would:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: This answer is correct. If the client is well informed about what reactions to expect from her medication, she is more likely to follow the treatment regimen. This answer is incorrect. There are many side effects that are reversible by medication, and these must be reported to the nurse or physician. There are also more severe side effects, such as neuroleptic malignant syndrome, characterized by fever, tachycardia, and diaphoresis, which can be life threatening. This answer is incorrect. There is no need for weekly blood tests if the drug regimen has been followed properly. This answer is incorrect. The client should continue the medication until the physician recommends any change in the drug regimen. Symptoms will usually reappear if medication is discontinued.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of placenta previa. Which symptom is most characteristic?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Placenta previa causes painless vaginal bleeding due to the placenta covering the cervix. Painful bleeding suggests abruptio placenta and fetal heart rate or fever are not specific to previa.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is notified that a 27-year-old primigravida diagnosed with complete placenta previa is to be admitted to the hospital for a cesarean section. The client is now at 36 weeks' gestation and is presently having bright red bleeding of moderate amount. On admission, the nursing intervention that the nurse should give the highest priority to is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: These nursing actions are necessary prior to the cesarean section, but not immediately necessary to maintain physiological equilibrium. Determining the physiological status of the fetus would constitute the highest priority in evaluating and maintaining fetal life. These nursing actions are necessary prior to the cesarean section, but not immediately necessary百2.5.3.2 immediately necessary to maintain physiological equilibrium. These nursing actions are necessary prior to the cesarean section, but not immediately necessary to maintain physiological equilibrium.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is preparing to administer a dose of vancomycin (Vancocin) IV. Which assessment is most important before administration?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Vancomycin is nephrotoxic, so renal function tests (e.g., creatinine) are critical before administration to prevent kidney damage. Liver tests, WBC, and platelets are less directly related.