NCLEX-PN
PN NCLEX Practice Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). The client is complaining of chest pain. The nurse knows that pain related to an MI is due to
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Insufficient oxygenation of the cardiac muscle. Due to ischemia of the heart muscle, the client experiences pain. This happens because an MI can block or interfere with the normal cardiac circulation.
Question 2 of 5
An 86-year-old client with diabetes and gastroparesis has had repeated hospitalizations for aspiration pneumonia following a stroke and is now hospitalized with altered level of consciousness. Which nursing action is most appropriate to decrease the client's risk for developing aspiration pneumonia?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The side-lying position (
B) reduces aspiration risk by preventing reflux into the airway, especially in clients with altered consciousness. Assessing breath sounds (
A), oxygen titration (
C), and repositioning (
D) are supportive but less effective for prevention.
Question 3 of 5
A client with a history of increased intracranial pressure is admitted to the hospital for severe headaches. The client suddenly vomits and states, 'That's weird, I didn't even feel nauseated.' Which action should the nurse take next?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sudden vomiting without nausea in increased ICP suggests worsening pressure, requiring immediate RN notification (
C). Documentation (
A), lowering the bed (
B), and antiemetics (
D) are secondary.
Question 4 of 5
A client who is 2 days post-operative from an appendectomy requests medication for pain. The client's vital signs are as follows: pulse 96, respirations 30, BP 130/92. The nurse should:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pain medication is appropriate for a post-op client with pain and stable vitals. Anxiety may contribute, but pain should be addressed first. Bleeding checks or rechecking vitals are unnecessary without specific indicators.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is assessing a 7-year-old client who was recently admitted with nausea, vomiting, severe right lower quadrant pain, and an elevated WBC count. Which of the following statements by the client would be a priority to follow up?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Resolution of pain (
C) in suspected appendicitis may indicate perforation, a surgical emergency, requiring urgent follow-up. Fatigue (
A), hunger (
B), and dislike of hospitals (
D) are less critical.