NCLEX-RN
ATI NCLEX-RN Practice Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A client hospitalized for treatment of congestive heart failure is to be discharged with a prescription for Digitek (digoxin) 0.25 mg daily. Which of the following statements indicates that the client needs further teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Taking digoxin with an antacid can decrease its absorption, reducing effectiveness, so this statement indicates a need for further teaching.
Question 2 of 5
A 6-month-old infant who was diagnosed at 4 weeks of age with a ventricular septal defect, was admitted today with a diagnosis of failure to thrive. His mother stated that he had not been eating well for the past month. A cardiac catheterization reveals congestive heart failure. All of the following nursing diagnoses are appropriate. Which nursing diagnosis should have priority?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Altered nutrition occurs owing to the fatigue from decreased cardiac output associated with congestive heart failure. The decreased intake occurs due to fatigue from the altered cardiac output. Fatigue occurs due to the decreased cardiac output. The ineffective action of the myocardium leads to inadequate O2 to the tissues, which produces activity intolerance, altered nutrition, and altered growth and development.
Question 3 of 5
The patient is prescribed metronidazole (Flagyl) for adjunct treatment for a duodenal ulcer. When teaching about this medication, the nurse would include:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Metronidazole can cause a disulfiram-like reaction (nausea, vomiting) when combined with alcohol, so patients should avoid alcoholic beverages and products. It should be taken for the full course, can be taken with food to reduce GI upset, and does not cause photosensitivity.
Question 4 of 5
A male client has experienced low back pain for several years. He is the primary support of his wife and six children. Although he would qualify for disability, he plans to continue his employment as long as possible. His back pain has increased recently, and he is unable to control it with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents. He refuses surgery and cannot take narcotics and remain alert enough to concentrate at work. His physician has suggested application of a transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) unit. Which of the following is an appropriate rationale for using a TENS unit for relief of pain?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: TENS units do not have this effect, but whirlpool therapy does. TENS units do not produce endogenous opioids, only the body can do that. TENS units do work based on the gate-control theory of pain control. TENS units do not have this effect, but possibly changing the client's position would.
Question 5 of 5
The client at 38 weeks gestation is admitted with a blood pressure of 150/100,proteinuria and edema. The nurse should prepare to administer which of the following medications?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The client’s symptoms (hypertension proteinuria edema) indicate preeclampsia. Magnesium sulfate is administered to prevent seizures (eclampsia). Terbutaline is a tocolytic hydralazine treats hypertension and betamethasone is for fetal lung maturity in preterm labor.