NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Trainer Test 6 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A client has undergone a lumbar puncture for examination of the CSF. Which of the following findings should be considered abnormal?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Elevated white blood cells (100/cu.mm) in CSF suggest infection or inflammation, an abnormal finding. Normal protein, glucose, and clear appearance are expected.
Question 2 of 5
A postoperative client has pain medication ordered PRN for discomfort. During the first assessment, the nurse notes that the client has not received pain medication all day. His vital signs are within normal limits, but he is sweating profusely. He smiles at you while speaking and states that he is not hot but is still experiencing some pain and has been since early this morning. What is the most appropriate nursing action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Administering the minimum dose and reassessing ensures effective pain management while monitoring response, given diaphoresis and reported pain.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis of the liver with ascites. When instructing nursing assistants in the care of the client, the nurse should emphasize that the client
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Should alternate ambulation with bed rest with legs elevated. Encourage alternating periods of ambulation and bed rest with legs elevated to mobilize edema and ascites.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous IV infusion of propofol (Diprivan) for sedation. Which of the following findings would be of GREATest concern to the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 90% is low, indicating hypoxemia, a serious complication of propofol due to respiratory depression, requiring immediate intervention. Options A, B, and C are acceptable: respiratory rate 12 breaths/min, blood pressure 100/60 mmHg, and heart rate 80 bpm are stable.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following findings is consistent with a diagnosis of congestive heart failure?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Jugular vein distention reflects increased fluid volume and right-sided heart failure, a hallmark of congestive heart failure. Other options are not specific to this condition.