NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Trainer Test 6 Questions
Extract:
A 22-year-old woman comes to the hospital at term in the early stages of labor. A diagnosis of complete placenta previa is made.
Question 1 of 5
It would be MOST important for the nurse to take which of the following actions?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Strategy: Answers are both assessments and implementations. Is the assessment appropriate? No. Determine the outcome of each implementation. Is it desired? (1) implementation, Brethine used to delay delivery in preterm labor (2) correct-implementation, cannot deliver vaginally (3) implementation, cannot deliver vaginally (4) assessment, cannot deliver vaginally, cesarean section must be performed
Extract:
Question 2 of 5
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is receiving $\mathrm{O}_2$ at $3 \mathrm{~L}/\mathrm{min}$ via nasal cannula. He is anxious and short of breath, and his mental status is clouded. The nurse should:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Checking vital signs and oxygen saturation assesses the cause of symptoms (e.g., hypoxia, hypercapnia). Increasing O2 risks CO2 retention in COPD. Monitoring is passive. Humidity is secondary.
Extract:
A toddler admitted with an elevated blood lead level is to be treated with intramuscular (IM) injections of calcium disodium edetate (Calcium EDTA) and dimercaprol (BAL).
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following nursing actions should have the highest priority?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Strategy: Answers are implementations. Determine the outcome of each answer choice. Is it desired? (1) no longer used for seizures, but it is important to have seizure precautions and emergency respiratory equipment available (2) important to implement, but is not a priority (3) contains incorrect information (4) correct-highest priority is to prevent tissue damage and promote tissue absorption of the medicine, accomplished through rotation of the injection sites
Extract:
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following findings is consistent with a diagnosis of congestive heart failure?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Jugular vein distention reflects increased fluid volume and right-sided heart failure, a hallmark of congestive heart failure. Other options are not specific to this condition.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse manager identifies that time spent by staff in charting is excessive, requiring overtime for completion. The nurse manager states that 'staff will form a task force to investigate and develop potential solutions to the problem, and report on this at the next staff meeting.' The nurse manager's leadership style is best described as
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Participative. A participative style of management involves staff in decision-making processes. Staff/manager interactions are open and trusting. Most work efforts are joint endeavors.