NCLEX-RN
ATI NCLEX-RN Practice Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A client has begun to exhibit signs of alcohol withdrawal. Her blood pressure has risen from 120/60 to 190/100, pulse is increased from 88 to 110 bpm, and she is irritable and agitated and has gross motor tremors of the hands. The nurse notifies the doctor. The nurse can anticipate that the doctor will order which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This answer is incorrect. Benzodiazepines are drugs of choice for alcohol withdrawal. This answer is correct. The drug has a sedative effect, is safe, and has an anticonvulsant effect. This answer is incorrect. Amitriptyline is an antidepressant. This answer is incorrect. Chlorpromazine is most effective in psychotic disorders.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse caring for a client receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate must closely observe for side effects associated with drug therapy. An expected side effect of magnesium sulfate is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypersomnolence (drowsiness) is an expected side effect of magnesium sulfate used for preeclampsia due to its central nervous system depressant effects. Absence of reflexes or decreased respiratory rate would indicate toxicity not an expected effect.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client following a laryngectomy. The nurse can best help the client with communication by:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A pad and pencil allow immediate, effective communication for a client post-laryngectomy, who cannot speak due to removal of the voice box.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of preeclampsia. Which intervention is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate prevents seizures blood pressure monitoring tracks hypertension and antihypertensives (e.g. hydralazine) manage severe hypertension in preeclampsia. All interventions are appropriate.
Question 5 of 5
Pregnant women with diabetes often have problems related to the effectiveness of insulin in controlling their glucose levels during their second half of pregnancy. The nurse teaches the client that this is due to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: There is a rise in glomerular filtration rate in the kidneys in conjunction with decreased tubular glucose reabsorption, resulting in glycosuria. Insulin is inhibited by increased levels of estrogen. Insulin is inhibited by increased levels of progesterone. Human placental lactogen levels increase later in pregnancy. This hormonal antagonist reduces insulin's effectiveness, stimulates lipolysis, and increases the circulation of free fatty acids.