NCLEX-RN
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A client has been in labor for 10 hours. Her contractions have become hypoactive and slowed in duration. The fetus is at 0 station, cervix is dilated 8 cm and effaced 90%. The physician orders an oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion to be started at once. The RN begins the oxytocin infusion. It is important that the RN discontinue the infusion if which one of the following occur?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Contractions less than 2 minutes apart indicate hyperstimulation, which can reduce uterine blood flow, leading to fetal hypoxia. The infusion should be discontinued to prevent complications.
Question 2 of 5
The physician orders the removal of an in-dwelling catheter the second post-operative day for a client with a prostatectomy. The client complains of pain and dribbling of urine the first time he voids. The nurse should tell the client that:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pain and dribbling post-catheter removal after prostatectomy are common due to bladder irritation and will improve with time. Compresses, exercises, or reinsertion are not typically needed.
Question 3 of 5
Following her surgery, a 5-year-old child will return to the pediatric unit with a long-arm cast. She experienced a supracondylar fracture of the humerus near the elbow. Which nursing action is most essential during the first 24 hours after surgery and cast application?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Neurovascular status of the extremity is of primary importance. The risk of circulatory impairment exists with any cast application, especially with fractures near the elbow.
Question 4 of 5
The registered nurse is assigning staff for four clients on the 3-11 shift. Which client should be assigned to the LPN?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A pneumonia client expecting discharge is stable and suitable for an LPN’s scope (e.g., monitoring, discharge prep). ARDS (
A), recent surgery (
B), and bleeding varices (
D) require RN-level care.
Question 5 of 5
A client with AIDS has a viral load of 200 copies per mL. The nurse should interpret this finding as:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A viral load of 200 copies per mL is very low indicating effective antiretroviral therapy and minimal circulating virus. It does not directly assess opportunistic disease risk communicability or T-cell count.