NCLEX-PN
Practice NCLEX PN Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A client comes to the emergency department for the second time with shortness of breath and substernal pressure that radiates to the jaw. The nurse understands that angina pectoris may be precipitated by which of these factors? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A,B,C,E
Rationale: Angina can be triggered by amphetamines increasing cardiac demand, smoking causing vasoconstriction, cold exposure inducing vasospasm, and sexual intercourse raising heart rate. Deep sleep typically reduces demand.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse in a clinic is caring for an 8-month-old client with a new diagnosis of bronchiolitis due to respiratory syncytial virus. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide to the parent?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: For bronchiolitis due to RSV, saline drops and bulb syringe suctioning help clear nasal passages, improving breathing. Cough suppressants and antihistamines are not recommended as they may suppress necessary cough or cause sedation. Prophylactic treatment is not standard for family members unless immunocompromised, and breastfeeding should continue to provide antibodies.
Question 3 of 5
Four clients arrive in the urgent care clinic. Which does the nurse anticipate to be the priority for intervention?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The child who is confused and irritable with missing glyburide pills suggests a potential hypoglycemic emergency due to sulfonylurea overdose, which requires immediate intervention to prevent severe complications like seizures or coma.
Question 4 of 5
An adult male has an IV in the left arm. The client calls the nurse and says that his left arm hurts. The LPN checks the IV site and notes that it is cool and blanched and not running well. What should the LPN do at this time?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cool, blanched skin and poor flow indicate infiltration; removing the IV and starting a new line prevents tissue damage.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse observes a nursing assistant caring for an 86-year-old woman who had an open reduction/internal fixation for a fractured femur two days ago. Which action by the nursing assistant needs correction by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Full weight-bearing two days post-femur fixation is inappropriate, risking hardware failure; partial or non-weight-bearing is typical. Abductor pillows, commodes, and self-bathing are appropriate.