NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Practice Test Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A client admitted with glaucoma is being treated with miotic (pilocarpine) eye drops. Following administration of the medication, the nurse will note:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Miotics, such as pilocarpine, are administered to the client with glaucoma to cause pupillary constriction, thereby lowering intraocular pressure. Answer A is incorrect because miotics constrict the pupil. Answer B is incorrect because miotics do not diminish redness. Answer C is incorrect because miotics do not decrease edema of the cornea.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is talking with the parent of a 15-month-old client who is scheduled to receive the varicella vaccine. Which of the following statements would be appropriate for the nurse to make? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A,C,D
Rationale: The varicella vaccine may cause a low-grade fever (
A) or a rash at the injection site (
C) as common side effects. A second dose (
D) is required at 4-6 years for full immunity. Aspirin (
B) is contraindicated in children due to Reye’s syndrome risk. Other vaccines (E) can be given concurrently, per CDC guidelines, unless contraindicated.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is to change a dressing. Which is essential to do when opening the dressing set?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The first flap should be opened away from the nurse to allow the last flap to be opened toward the nurse, preventing contamination. The dressing set should be placed at waist height on a clean surface like an overbed table, not on the bed or a chair.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing hypotension and respiratory depression after administration of IV midazolam. The nurse should anticipate that the client will receive
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Midazolam, a benzodiazepine, can cause respiratory depression and hypotension in overdose. Flumazenil (
D) is the specific antidote, reversing benzodiazepine effects. Acetylcysteine (
A) treats acetaminophen overdose, benztropine (
B) manages extrapyramidal symptoms, and phentolamine (
C) treats hypertensive crises, none of which apply here.
Question 5 of 5
At 26 weeks gestation, a client is admitted to the ER stating that she has been having a painless bloody vaginal discharge since last evening. The nurse should give priority to:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Painless bleeding at 26 weeks suggests placenta previa or abruption, requiring immediate physician notification . Assessing discharge , vitals , or fetal monitoring follows reporting.