NCLEX-RN
NCLEX-RN Exam Practice Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A behavioral modification program is recommended by the multidisciplinary team working with a 15-year-old client with anorexia nervosa. A nursing plan of care based on this modality would include:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This answer is incorrect. Role playing is based on learning but is not based on the behavioral modification model. This answer is correct. The behavioral modification model is based on negative and positive reinforcers to change behavior. This answer is incorrect. Verbal catharsis is not an intervention based on behavioral modification. This answer is incorrect. Although an acceptable nursing intervention, it is not based on behavioral modification.
Question 2 of 5
A client with a history of diverticulitis complains of abdominal pain, fever, and diarrhea. Which food is most likely responsible for the client's symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Whole-grain cereal, high in fiber and seeds, can irritate diverticulitis, causing pain, fever, and diarrhea. Low-fiber foods like potatoes, carrots, and fish are less likely to trigger symptoms.
Question 3 of 5
The client is receiving a continuous infusion of insulin for diabetic ketoacidosis. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor most closely?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Insulin therapy in diabetic ketoacidosis shifts potassium into cells, risking hypokalemia, which can cause arrhythmias. Sodium, BUN, and A1C are monitored but are less critical during acute treatment.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube for decompression. Which action is most appropriate to ensure proper function?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Checking nasogastric tube placement (e.g., via pH or aspiration) before feedings or medications ensures the tube is in the stomach, preventing aspiration. Irrigation frequency depends on protocol, clamping may cause reflux, and supine positioning risks aspiration.
Question 5 of 5
While caring for an elderly patient with hypertension, the nurse notes the following vital signs: BP of 140/40, pulse 120, respirations 36. The nurse's initial action should be to:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The vital signs indicate a wide pulse pressure (140/40), tachycardia (pulse 120), and tachypnea (respirations 36), suggesting possible cardiovascular or respiratory distress. The nurse should report these findings to the physician immediately for further evaluation, as they may indicate a serious condition like heart failure or shock.