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Questions 158

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Question 1 of 5

A 67-year-old man had a physical examination prior to beginning volunteer work at the hospital. A routine chest x-ray demonstrated left ventricular hypertrophy. His blood pressure was 180/110. He is 45 lb overweight. His diet is high in sodium and fat. He has a strong family history of hypertension. The client is placed on antihypertensive medication; a low-sodium, low-fat diet; and an exercise regimen. On his next visit, compliance would best be determined by:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A blood pressure within acceptable range best demonstrates compliance, but weight loss cannot be accomplished without adherence to medication, diet, and exercise. Absence of side effects does not indicate compliance with medication. Pill counts can be misleading because the client can alter pill counts prior to visit. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not an accurate measure of compliance because hypertrophy frequently does not decrease even with pharmacological management. Therapeutic blood levels measure the drug level at the time of the test. There is no indication of compliance several days before testing.

Question 2 of 5

Stat serum electrolytes ordered for a client in acute renal failure revealed a serum potassium level of 6.4. The physician is immediately notified and orders 50 mL of dextrose and 10 U of regular insulin IV push. The nurse administering these drugs knows the rationale for this therapy is to:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate), a cation exchange resin, exchanges sodium ions for potassium ions in the large intestine reducing the serum potassium. Calcium is administered to protect the myocardium from the adverse effects of hyperkalemia. Serum levels reflect hyperkalemia. Rapid catabolism releases potassium from the body tissue into the bloodstream. Infection and hyperthermia increase the process of catabolism. The administration of dextrose and regular insulin IV forces potassium back into the cells decreasing the potassium in the serum.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse is assessing a trauma client in the emergency room when she notes a penetrating abdominal wound with exposed viscera. The nurse should:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Exposed viscera should be covered with sterile saline-soaked gauze to keep them moist and prevent infection until surgical repair. Replacing contents or using non-sterile/petroleum dressings is unsafe.

Question 4 of 5

A client had a transurethral resection of the prostate yesterday. He is concerned about the small amount of blood that is still in his urine. The nurse explains that the blood in his urine:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Some hematuria is usual for several days after surgery. The client should not be concerned about it unless it increases.

Question 5 of 5

A 27-year-old primigravida at 32 weeks' gestation has been diagnosed with complete placenta previa. Conservative management including bed rest is the proper medical management. The goal for fetal survival is based on fetal lung maturity. The test used to determine fetal lung maturity is:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Dinitrophenylhydrazine is a laboratory test used to detect phenylketonuria, maple syrup urine disease, and Lowe's syndrome. Metachromatic stain is a laboratory test that may be used to diagnose Tay-Sachs and other lipid diseases of the central nervous system. The blood serum phenylalanine test is diagnostic of phenylketonuria and can be used for wide-scale screening. A lecithin-sphingomyelin ratio of at least 2:1 is indicative of fetal lung maturity, and survival of the fetus is likely.

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