NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A 43-year-old client has developed progressive frontotemporal dementia and is exhibiting inappropriate and compulsive behaviors, difficulty with language, and impaired judgment. Which statement by the client's wife suggests that she has not accepted a permanent role change in their relationship?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Expecting the husband to manage finances (
A) indicates denial of his impaired judgment due to dementia, suggesting non-acceptance of a permanent role change. Other statements (B, C,
D) reflect frustration or realistic expectations.
Question 2 of 5
A medication error has occurred, and the client has received double the ordered dosage of magnesium sulfate. The nurse anticipates the physician will order what medication STAT?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate overdose causes hypermagnesemia, treated with calcium gluconate to counteract toxicity (e.g., respiratory depression, hypotension).
Question 3 of 5
A client has an open draining wound infected with MRSA and is on contact precautions. If the nurse is entering the room to care for the client, when are gloving and gowning necessary?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Contact precautions for MRSA require gloving and gowning upon entering the room (
C) for any patient or environmental contact to prevent transmission. Limited contact (A,
B) or uncontained drainage (
D) does not override the need for full precautions.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following post-operative diets is most appropriate for the client who has had a hemorrhoidectomy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: High-fiber diets promote soft stools, reducing strain post-hemorrhoidectomy.
Question 5 of 5
A client is admitted with acute adrenal crisis. During the intake assessment, the nurse can expect to find that the client has:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acute adrenal crisis causes low blood pressure due to insufficient cortisol and aldosterone, leading to hypovolemia and shock.