NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Practice Test RN Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A 42-year-old client with bipolar disorder has been hospitalized on the inpatient psychiatric unit. She is dancing around, talking incessantly, and singing. Much of the time the client is anorexic and eats very little from her tray before she is up and about again. The nurse's intervention would be to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The manic client's mood may easily change from euphoric to irritable. The nurse should avoid confrontation and let the client know what she can do, rather than what she cannot. Although helpful to refocus or redirect the manic client to discuss only one topic at a time, distractibility is very high and it's best to avoid long discussions. Manic clients have a tendency to manipulate persons in their environment. Staff should monitor intake, including at mealtime and snacks, and be consistent in their approach to meeting nutritional needs. Manic clients may not sit and eat complete meals, but they can carry foods and liquids from regular meals with them. Staff can monitor and give high-caloric and high-energy snacks and liquids.
Question 2 of 5
A physician's order reads: Administer furosemide oral solution 0.5 mL stat. The furosemide bottle dosage is 10 mg/mL. What dosage of furosemide should the nurse give to this infant?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: 1 mg = 0.1 mL, then 0.5 mL X = 5 mg.
Question 3 of 5
When interviewing parents who are suspected of child abuse, the nurse would use which of the following interview techniques?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse must be honest, direct, professional, and attentive in her interview to gain the parent's trust. The nurse should approach the parents in private, away from the child. Asking them to relive and evaluate the situation may be looked at as placing blame on the parents for the child's 'accident.' At this point, the parents may get defensive and stop communicating. Although you may call child protective services, the nurse should inform the parents of their responsibility to do this and explain the process to them.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a spinal cord injury at C5. Which complication is the client at greatest risk for?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A C5 spinal cord injury impairs diaphragm function (innervated by C3–C5), placing the client at greatest risk for respiratory depression due to weak respiratory muscles. The other complications are risks but less immediate.
Question 5 of 5
A female client is started on warfarin (Coumadin) 5 mg po bid. To adequately evaluate the effectiveness of the warfarin therapy, the nurse must know that this medication:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Thrombolytic agents (e.g., streptokinase) directly activate plasminogen, dissolving fibrin deposits, which in turn dissolves clots that have already formed. Heparin prevents the formation of clots by potentiating the effects of antithrombin III and the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. Warfarin prevents the formation of clots by interfering with the hepatic synthesis of the vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Platelets initiate the coagulation of blood by adhering to each other and the site of injury to form platelet plugs.