NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Trainer Test 8 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic for a glycosylated hemoglobin assay (HbA1c). The result is 6%. The nurse should
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An HbA1c of 6% indicates good diabetes control (normal 4–6%). Documenting is appropriate as no action is needed. Options B, C, and D are unnecessary.
Extract:
The triage nurse for a women's health center receives a phone call from each of the following women.
Question 2 of 5
Which woman should be directed to come to the health care facility IMMEDIATELY?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Strategy: Determine the least stable client. (1) correct-needs to be evaluated for an ectopic pregnancy (2) expect during first trimester of pregnancy (3) symptomatic of threatened abortion; instruct to decrease activity (4) symptoms of spontaneous abortion; instruct client to save and count pads
Extract:
A client develops severe, crushing chest pain radiating to the left shoulder and arm.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following PRN medications should the nurse administer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Strategy: All answers are implementations. Determine the outcome of each answer choice. Is it desired? (1) not an appropriate medication in this situation; antianxiety medication (2) Demerol is less commonly used because it may induce vomiting and initiate a vagal response (3) correct-morphine sulfate is given to reduce pain, anxiety, and cardiac workload; reduces the preload and afterload pressures (4) although a client at home may have taken NTG SL, the nurse would administer it IV to reduce pain and decrease overload
Extract:
A six-month-old infant has had all of the required immunizations.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse knows this would include which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Strategy: Think about each answer choice. (1) correct-first dose of the DPT may be given at two months, the second is given around four months (2) MMR is given at 15 months (3) polio is given at two and four months and again at 12 to 18 months (4) smallpox vaccine is no longer recommended
Extract:
Question 5 of 5
A client who has had a right below-the-knee amputation refers to himself as 'a freak' and 'old peg-leg.' What initial response by the nurse is most therapeutic?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Reflecting the client's feelings ('You feel like a freak') validates their emotions, promoting therapeutic communication. Denying, normalizing, or reassuring dismisses their distress.