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Question 1 of 5

A 26-year-old client has no children. She has had an abdominal hysterectomy. In the first 24 hours postoperatively, the nurse would be concerned if the client:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The client may be more tearful than normal due to the stress of the surgery and its implications for her future life. She would be expected to have pain following surgery. A temperature of 102°F indicates an infectious process. This is not a normal sequence to surgery and indicates a need for further assessment. The client is expected to have no bowel sounds for 24-48 hours after surgery because of the trauma to the bowel. Normal urine output is 30 mL/hr. This represents an output of 50 mL/hr, which is greater than normal.

Question 2 of 5

A client hospitalized with cirrhosis has developed abdominal ascites. The nurse should provide the client with snacks that provide additional:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Ascites in cirrhosis is linked to hypoalbuminemia; increasing protein intake helps restore albumin levels, reducing fluid accumulation.

Question 3 of 5

The client is having electroconvulsive therapy for treatment of severe depression. Prior to the ECT,the nurse should:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: A blood pressure cuff is applied to one limb during ECT to monitor for seizure activity (visible in the uncuffed limb).
Tourniquets anticonvulsants and shellfish allergies are not relevant to ECT preparation.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse is performing an assessment on a client with a history of pancreatitis. Which finding is most concerning?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Grey-Turner’s sign (flank bruising) indicates retroperitoneal hemorrhage in pancreatitis, a life-threatening complication requiring immediate attention. Other findings are common but less severe.

Question 5 of 5

The child with seizure disorder is being treated with phenytoin (Dilantin). Which of the following statements by the patient's mother indicates to the nurse that the patient is experiencing a side effect of Dilantin therapy?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia (overgrown gums) is a common side effect of phenytoin (Dilantin). Irritability, excessive sleep, and weight gain are not typical side effects of this medication.

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