NCLEX Questions, Best NCLEX-PN Practice Questions Questions, NCLEX-PN Questions, Nurselytic

Questions 149

NCLEX-PN

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Question 1 of 5

A 17-year-old female receives treatment for primary amenorrhea caused by hyperthyroidism. Which finding during a clinic visit should indicate to the nurse that treatment for amenorrhea was effective?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A. An increased weight may help with initiating a menstrual cycle if the cause is a body fat composition of less than 10%, but this does not indicate that the woman has started her menstrual cycle. B. If the client is not menstruating (amenorrhea), she will not have menstrual cramps. C. Hyperthyroidism and a body fat composition of less than 10% can be contributing factors to amenorrhea (absence of menses). The start of a menstrual cycle indicates that treatment of the underlying cause of amenorrhea is effective. D. The absence of a fine hand tremor may indicate treatment is effective for the hyperthyroidism. It does not indicate that the primary amenorrhea is resolved.

Question 2 of 5

Mr. S. is a man who has not spoken for years. He is diagnosed as having paranoid schizophrenia. One day, when Ms. J., another client, was standing facing the elevator, the man approached her from behind and reached for her as if to strangle her. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take at this time?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Getting his attention and calling for help ensures safety for all involved without escalating the situation through physical intervention.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy is concerned about the client's nutritional status. What should the nurse encourage the client to do?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Increasing spices enhances flavor, encouraging intake, as chemotherapy often dulls taste buds, impacting nutritional status.

Question 4 of 5

Chlorpromazine hydrochloride (Thorazine) is prescribed for a young adult with schizophrenia. For three days, the chlorpromazine (Thorazine) is to be administered intramuscularly. Before administering chlorpromazine (Thorazine) intramuscularly to the client, the nurse should make which of these assessments?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Chlorpromazine can cause orthostatic hypotension, so checking blood pressure before intramuscular administration ensures safety.

Question 5 of 5

A female client has an abdominal hysterectomy to remove a uterine fibroid. Which action should the nurse include when caring for the client postoperatively?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A. Monitoring the perineal pad will alert the nurse to any increase in vaginal bleeding. Infection and hemorrhage are the major risks following a hysterectomy. B. HRT is needed only if the ovaries have been removed (oophorectomy). C. The client should be encouraged to ambulate in the early postoperative period, rather than remain on bedrest. Development of DVT is a concern after abdominal hysterectomy. D. Peristalsis is typically suppressed after abdominal hysterectomy, and the client will be on restricted oral intake until physical signs indicate the return of peristalsis.

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