NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
You are caring for a 78-year-old woman who is wondering why she was diagnosed with glaucoma. Although she has several risk factors, which of these is not one of them?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Age over 60 and Mexican-American heritage are recognized as risk factors for glaucoma. Elevated blood pressure is also a risk factor due to its potential to cause optic nerve damage. While 20/80 vision indicates poor eyesight, it is not a direct causal factor for glaucoma. Glaucoma is mainly associated with factors like age, ethnicity, and certain medical conditions, rather than a specific visual acuity measurement.
Therefore, 20/80 vision is not a risk factor for glaucoma, making it the correct answer. The other choices, such as age, Mexican-American heritage, and elevated blood pressure, are established risk factors for developing glaucoma, as they are associated with an increased likelihood of the condition.
Question 2 of 5
The client has an order for an IV piggyback of Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W to run over 30 minutes. What is the appropriate drip rate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
To calculate the drip rate, you need to convert the time from minutes to hours. The formula is (Volume to be infused / Time for infusion in minutes) x (60 minutes / 1 hour). Substituting the values, (50 mL / 30 min) x (60 min / 1 hr) = 100 mL/hr.
Therefore, the appropriate drip rate is 100 mL/hr.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the calculated drip rate. Option A, 100 mL/hr, is the correct drip rate for administering Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W over 30 minutes.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following clients should refrain from therapy with the thiazide diuretic hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Thiazides can elevate blood glucose by causing hypokalemia, which reduces insulin secretion, making them unsuitable for clients with type II diabetes.
Question 4 of 5
When caring for a patient who is hard-of-hearing, which of the following steps may be appropriate when communicating with the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When caring for a patient who is hard-of-hearing, it is important to divide verbal communication into smaller sections and address them one at a time. This approach helps the patient follow along more easily and understand the information being conveyed. While using written information can also be beneficial, solely relying on written communication may not always be practical or feasible for effective interaction. Asking multiple questions quickly can overwhelm the patient and hinder their ability to process each question adequately. It is essential to give the patient sufficient time to comprehend and respond. Additionally, frequently communicating without assistive devices is not recommended. Using assistive devices can significantly enhance the patient's ability to hear and understand, promoting better communication and patient care.
Question 5 of 5
During a genital examination of a male client, a nurse notices wrinkled skin on the penis and scrotum. What should the nurse do based on this finding?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The penile skin typically appears wrinkled and hairless, without lesions, during a normal examination. Also, the scrotal skin naturally has a wrinkled appearance known as rugae. It is common for the left half of the scrotum to be positioned lower than the right, indicating normal asymmetry. Given these normal variations, the nurse should document the finding of wrinkled skin on the penis and scrotum. Checking for penile discharge or palpating for a mass in the scrotum is not indicated based on the presence of wrinkled skin, as this is a normal finding. Obtaining additional subjective data focusing on a scrotal abnormality is unnecessary since the wrinkled appearance is typical.