NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Exam Cram Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following should not be included in the teaching for clients who take oral iron preparations?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to mix the liquid iron preparation with antacids to reduce GI distress. This statement is incorrect because iron should not be mixed with antacids as it can significantly reduce the absorption of iron.
Choice B is a good recommendation as taking iron with meals can help reduce gastrointestinal distress.
Choice C is also correct as liquid forms of iron should be taken with a straw to prevent the discoloration of tooth enamel.
Choice D is incorrect as iron preparations can be taken with juice or water, but not with milk, as calcium in milk can inhibit iron absorption.
Question 2 of 5
A 15-year-old high school wrestler has been taking diuretics to lose weight to compete in a lower weight class. Which of the following medical tests is most likely to be given?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Diuretics can disrupt the sodium and potassium balance, potentially leading to cardiac complications. Monitoring the lab values of potassium and sodium is crucial to assess electrolyte imbalances due to diuretic use. Testing glucose and hemoglobin levels is not directly related to diuretic use in this context. An ECG would be indicated if there were signs or symptoms of cardiac abnormalities, but it is not the primary test to monitor the effects of diuretics. A CT scan is not typically used to assess electrolyte imbalances caused by diuretics.
Question 3 of 5
A client who is newly diagnosed with Parkinson's disease and beginning medication therapy asks the nurse, 'How soon will I see improvement?' The nurse's best response is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the case of Parkinson's disease, improvement in symptoms may take several weeks of therapy to become noticeable.
Therefore, the correct answer is to inform the client that it might take several weeks before they notice improvement.
Choice A acknowledges individual variability but does not provide a specific timeframe, making it less reassuring.
Choice B suggests deferring the question to the physician, which is not the most supportive response.
Choice C is incorrect because improvement in Parkinson's disease symptoms typically does not occur within a few days.
Question 4 of 5
A patient 3 hours post-op from a hysterectomy is complaining of intense pain at the incision site. When assessing the patient, the nurse notes a BP of 169/93, pulse 145 bpm, and regular. What action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to administer prn Meperidine HCL and assess the client's response. A BP of 169/93 and a pulse of 145 bpm indicate pain-related hypertension and sinus tachycardia, which are physiological responses to pain. Treating the cause of the increased pulse rate requires pain medication. Reassuring the patient about normal post-surgery pain is important, but addressing the physiological responses to pain is a priority. Administering Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, is not indicated for pain management but for hypertension. Rechecking the BP and pulse rate without addressing the pain directly does not address the underlying issue causing the elevated vital signs.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following is not typically considered one of the main mechanisms of Type II Diabetes treatment?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Continuous Insulin is not typically considered one of the main mechanisms for treating Type II Diabetes. While medications, nutrition, and increased activity play crucial roles in managing Type II Diabetes, continuous insulin therapy is more common in Type I Diabetes or in specific cases of Type II Diabetes where other treatments are ineffective.
Therefore, the correct answer is Continuous Insulin.
Choices A, B, and C are mainstays in the treatment of Type II Diabetes, making them incorrect answers.