NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN 2023 Quizlet Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following conditions places a client at risk for developing cirrhosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Alcoholism places a client at risk for developing cirrhosis due to the liver damage caused by excessive alcohol consumption. Type I diabetes, leukemia, and glaucoma are not directly associated with cirrhosis. While diabetes can lead to other health complications, it does not directly cause cirrhosis. Leukemia is a type of blood cancer that does not affect the liver in a way that leads to cirrhosis. Glaucoma is an eye condition that has no direct link to cirrhosis.
Question 2 of 5
A client comes to the clinic for assessment of his physical status and guidelines for starting a weight-reduction diet. The client's weight is 216 pounds and his height is 66 inches. The nurse identifies the BMI (body mass index) as:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Obesity is defined by a BMI of 30 or more with no co-morbid conditions. Body Mass Index (BMI) is calculated by utilizing a chart or nomogram that plots height and weight. In this case, the client's BMI is calculated as 35, indicating obesity. A BMI of 27 falls within the overweight range, not obesity (which starts at 30).
Choices A and B are incorrect because a BMI of 35 indicates obesity, not normal limits or being lower than normal.
Therefore, the correct answer is C, indicating obesity based on the BMI calculation.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following medications is a serotonin antagonist that might be used to relieve nausea and vomiting?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Zofran is a serotonin antagonist commonly used to relieve nausea and vomiting by blocking serotonin receptors. Metoclopramide (Reglan) acts on dopamine receptors, hydroxyzine (Vistaril) is an antihistamine, and prochlorperazine (Compazine) is a dopamine antagonist. While these medications can also be used for nausea and vomiting, they do not primarily function as serotonin antagonists like ondansetron.
Question 4 of 5
When administering intravenous electrolyte solution, which of the following precautions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When administering intravenous electrolyte solutions, it is crucial to prevent infiltration of calcium to avoid tissue necrosis and sloughing. Hypertonic solutions should be infused cautiously (
Choice
A) to prevent adverse effects. The correct amount of potassium to be mixed in a liter of fluid is no more than 60 mEq, making
Choice B incorrect. While monitoring the client's digitalis dosage for potential adjustments due to IV calcium administration is important, the statement suggesting an increased dosage is incorrect as IV calcium diminishes digitalis's action, making
Choice D incorrect.
Question 5 of 5
Which type of exercises might be prescribed to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles of a client with urinary incontinence?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Kegel. Kegel exercises are specifically designed to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, making them an effective treatment for urinary incontinence. These exercises involve contracting and relaxing the pelvic floor muscles, which helps to improve muscle tone and control.
Choice B, resistance exercises, may not directly target the pelvic floor muscles as effectively as Kegel exercises. Passive exercises (
Choice
C) do not actively engage the muscles and are unlikely to strengthen the pelvic floor. Stretching exercises (
Choice
D) focus on increasing flexibility rather than muscle strength, so they are not the most appropriate for strengthening the pelvic floor muscles in the context of urinary incontinence.