NCLEX-PN
Hematology NCLEX Practice Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following assessment findings should alert the nurse that the elderly client should be evaluated for pernicious anemia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A beefy-red tongue is a classic symptom of pernicious anemia due to vitamin B12 deficiency.
Question 2 of 5
A child is being evaluated for possible leukemia. Which assessment finding is most likely to be present?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Numerous bruises are common in leukemia due to decreased platelets from bone marrow failure.
Question 3 of 5
The client receiving hospice care has cancer pain and requires treatment with a co-analgesic for pain control. Which medication should the nurse request an HCP to prescribe because it gives the best pain-relieving response when given with opioids?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Promethazine (Phenergan) is given with pain medications, but it treats nausea and vomiting, not pain. Gabapentin (Neurontin) is often administered with opioid pain medications because of its efficacy in relieving neuropathic pain and its limited adverse effects. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is not a co-analgesic but an antihistamine. Droperidol (Inapsine) is not a co-analgesic but an antiemetic to control nausea and vomiting.
Question 4 of 5
The client is diagnosed with congestive heart failure and anemia. The HCP ordered a transfusion of two (2) units of packed red blood cells. The unit has 250 mL of red blood cells plus 45 mL of additive. At what rate should the nurse set the IV pump to infuse each unit of packed red blood cells?
Correct Answer: 74
Rationale: Each unit = 250 mL RBC + 45 mL additive = 295 mL. Standard transfusion time is 4 hours max. 295 mL ÷ 4 hr = 73.75 mL/hr, rounded to 74 mL/hr for pump precision.
Question 5 of 5
The client had basal cell carcinoma (BCC) lesions excised the day before at an outpatient clinic. The client telephones the nurse expressing concerns that the wounds are draining watery, pale pink fluid and that the small dressing is leaking. Which action should the nurse recommend?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A. Applying ice to the area is not necessary because the client did not mention swelling. B. Since the wounds do not drain purulent material, contacting the physician is not necessary. C. Because the client is not experiencing pain, pain medication is not needed. D. The nurse should recommend changing the dressing because a small amount of serosanguineous drainage is a normal response to surgical removal of a lesion.