NCLEX RN Exam Questions - Nurselytic

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to take pancrelipase (Viokase) with each meal. Pancrelipase is a pancreatic enzyme replacement medication that helps with the digestion of nutrients. Patients with chronic pancreatitis often have difficulty digesting food properly due to insufficient pancreatic enzyme production. Taking pancrelipase with each meal assists in the breakdown of fats, proteins, and carbohydrates consumed during the meal. Option A ('at bedtime') is incorrect because enzymes should be taken with meals to aid in digestion. Option B ('in the morning') is not ideal as it does not ensure optimal enzyme activity during meals. Option D ('for abdominal pain') is incorrect as pancrelipase is not meant to be taken solely for pain relief but rather to aid in digestion.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for Bleeding.' A patient with dementia may have impaired judgment and may be prone to falls or injuries, increasing the risk of bleeding while on heparin therapy. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is crucial in this situation.
Choice A, 'Back Pain,' is not a common side effect of heparin.
Choice B, 'Fever and Chills,' is not a typical side effect of heparin but may indicate other underlying conditions.
Choice D, 'Dizziness,' is not a common side effect of heparin and is not the primary concern in this scenario.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: A client diagnosed with active tuberculosis should be placed in isolation in a negative-pressure room to prevent transmission of infection to others. Placing the client in a negative-pressure room ensures that air is exhausted to the outside and received from surrounding areas, preventing tuberculin particles from traveling through the ventilation system and infecting others. Initiating standard precautions, as mentioned in choice C, is essential for infection control but is not specific to preventing transmission in the case of tuberculosis. Beginning drug therapy within 72 hours of diagnosis, as in choice A, is crucial for the treatment of tuberculosis but does not directly address preventing transmission. Placing the client in a positive-pressure room, as in choice B, is incorrect as positive-pressure rooms are used for clients with compromised immune systems to prevent outside pathogens from entering the room, which is not suitable for a client with active tuberculosis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fever and rash.' Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSP) is caused by the R. rickettsii pathogen, which damages blood vessels. Patients with RMSP typically present with fever, edema, and a rash that initially appears on the hands and feet before spreading across the body. The disease manifests following a tick bite.
Choice A is correct as fever and rash are key indicators of RMSP. Circumoral cyanosis (choice
B) is not typically associated with RMSP; it refers to a bluish discoloration around the mouth and is more indicative of oxygen deprivation. Elevated glucose levels (choice
C) are not specific signs of RMSP.
Therefore, choice D, 'All of the above,' is incorrect since only choice A, 'Fever and rash,' is associated with Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) is not 'caught' but is a response to a previous B-hemolytic strep infection. AGN is generally accepted as an immune-complex disease triggered by an antecedent streptococcal infection occurring 4 to 6 weeks prior. It is considered a noninfectious renal disease.
Choice A is incorrect because AGN is not a streptococcal infection that involves the kidney tubules but rather a noninfectious renal disease.
Choice B is incorrect as AGN is not easily transmissible in schools and camps but is a result of a previous streptococcal infection.
Choice C is incorrect as AGN is not usually associated with chronic respiratory infections, but with a previous streptococcal infection.