NCLEX-PN
Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies NCLEX Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse notes from the child's MAR illustrated that the child is to receive the first dose of a newly prescribed medication at 0800 hours. The drug reference book recommends an initial pediatric dose of lamotrigine of 0.6 mg/kg/day in two divided doses for the first 2 weeks. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A: Although the medication is written on the MAR, an error still exists in the dose, and the medication should not be administered. B: The nurse should notify the HCP. The child weighs 30 kg; the recommended initial daily dose of lamotrigine (Lamictal) for this child would be 18 mg (0.6 x 30 = 18 mg). If given 18 mg bid, the child would receive a daily dose of 36 mg, twice the recommended initial pediatric dose. C: The child has a new-onset seizure disorder; it is unlikely that the child was taking this medication prior to hospitalization. D: Consulting the pharmacist is unnecessary; the nurse still needs to seek clarification from the HCP.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is caring for the client who has received sumatriptan. The nurse evaluates that sumatriptan has been an effective treatment when the client reports which change?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A: Sumatriptan is not used in the treatment of mood alterations. B: Sumatriptan is not used in the treatment of muscle spasms. C: Sumatriptan is not used in the treatment of insomnia. D: Sumatriptan (Imitrex) is a serotonin receptor agonist and a first-line medication for terminating a migraine or cluster headache attack.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following is an inappropriate item to include in planning care for a severely neutropenic client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Granulocyte transfusion is not indicated to prevent infection. Produced in the bone marrow, granulocytes normally comprise 70% of all WBCs. They are subdivided into three types based on staining properties: neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils. They can be beneficial in a selected population of infected, severely granulocytopenic clients (less than 500/mm3) who do not respond to antibiotic therapy and who are expected to experience prolonged suppression of granulocyte production.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse should teach a client in the Emergency Department, who has suffered an ankle sprain, to:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cold applications reduce edema and vasoconstriction in the first 24-48 hours of an ankle sprain. Pain and disability may increase initially, and exercises begin later per physician guidance.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse receives the HCP order to start TPN for the client who has a PICC. Into which type of catheter illustrated should the nurse plan to administer the TPN?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A: Illustration A is a central line that is percutaneously inserted into the jugular or subclavian vein and terminates in the central circulation. These are intended for short-term venous access. B: Illustration B is a PICC, which is inserted into the arm and terminates in the central circulation. A PICC is used when medications or solutions are too caustic to be peripherally administered or when therapy lasts more than 2 weeks. C: Illustration C is a tunneled catheter inserted into the upper chest wall and threaded through the cephalic vein; it terminates in the central circulation. D: Illustration D is an intra-aortic balloon pump catheter that is inserted into the femoral artery and positioned in the descending aortic arch. The balloon on the end inflates during diastole. It is not used for medication or fluid administration.