NCLEX-PN
Next Generation Nclex Questions Overview 3.0 ATI Quizlet Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is teaching a teenage female about preventing the transmission of genital herpes. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Genital herpes can be transmitted through oral, genital, and anal sex. It's crucial to understand that the infection can be spread through intercourse even when symptoms are not present. Option A is incorrect because genital herpes is not transmitted through toilet seats. Option B is correct as oral sex can transmit the virus. Option D is incorrect as drinking fluids after sex does not prevent the transmission of genital herpes.
Question 2 of 5
A young boy is recently diagnosed with a seizure disorder. Which of the following statements by the boy's mother indicates a need for further teaching by the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is '"I should lay him on his back during a seizure."?' When a client is having a seizure, it is crucial to turn them onto their side to prevent aspiration of secretions. Placing them on their back can lead to potential airway compromise.
Choices A, B, and D are correct statements that indicate a good understanding of caring for a child with a seizure disorder: ensuring rest, getting a medical alert bracelet for identification, and loosening clothing to facilitate breathing during a seizure.
Question 3 of 5
A client turns her ankle. She is diagnosed as having a Pulled Ligament. This should be documented as a:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A sprain is the correct term for the excessive stretching of a ligament, which is what happens when a ligament is pulled. A strain involves muscle tissue. Subluxation refers to a partial dislocation, and dislocation is a complete displacement of bones in a joint. In this case, since it's a pulled ligament, the most appropriate term is a sprain.
Question 4 of 5
In which of the following conditions might increased cortisol levels be found?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cushing's syndrome is characterized by increased cortisol levels due to the overproduction of cortisol by the adrenal glands. This excess cortisol can lead to various symptoms and complications. Addison's disease is associated with decreased cortisol levels as it results from adrenal insufficiency, making it an incorrect choice in this context. Renal failure and congestive heart failure are not typically linked to abnormal cortisol levels, further indicating that they are not the conditions where increased cortisol levels are found.
Question 5 of 5
The healthcare provider sustains a needle puncture that requires HIV prophylaxis. Which of the following medication regimens should be used?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the scenario of a needle puncture requiring HIV prophylaxis, the CDC recommends initiating treatment with two non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, unless there is drug resistance. This regimen is preferred over other options such as a single protease inhibitor or two protease inhibitors due to its effectiveness and safety profile in this specific context. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors are commonly used in post-exposure prophylaxis due to their activity against HIV and lower risk of resistance development compared to other antiretroviral drug classes.