NCLEX-RN
Health Care of the Older Adult NCLEX Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is teaching a client with osteoarthritis about assistive devices. Which device is most appropriate for ambulation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A standard cane provides support and stability for clients with osteoarthritis during ambulation.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is reading the results of a tuberculin skin test (see fi gure). The nurse should interpret the results as:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The tuberculin test is positive. The test should be interpreted 2 to 3 days after administering the purifi ed protein derivative (PP
D) by measuring the size of the fi rm, raised area (induration). Positive responses indicate that the client may have been exposed to the tuberculosis bacteria. A negative response is indicated by the absence of a fi rm, raised area, or an area that is less than 5 mm in diameter. Since the test is positive, it is not necessary to redo the test. The test is positive, not false.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following clients with burns will most likely require an endotracheal or tracheostomy tube?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Thermal burns to the head, face, and airway can cause swelling and obstruction, leading to hypoxia and requiring airway management like endotracheal intubation or tracheostomy.
Question 4 of 5
An overweight client taking warfarin (Coumadin) has a nursing diagnosis of ineffective tissue perfusion related to decreased arterial blood flow. What should the nurse instruct the client to do? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: B,C,E
Rationale: Rationales:
B) A reduced-calorie, reduced-fat diet helps manage weight and reduce atherosclerosis progression, improving arterial blood flow.
C) Daily inspection for ulcerations is essential in PVD to detect early skin breakdown due to poor perfusion. E) Using an electric razor minimizes the risk of cuts and bleeding, which is critical for a client on warfarin.
A) Applying lanolin or petroleum jelly is not directly related to improving tissue perfusion.
D) Limiting ADLs is incorrect, as moderate activity promotes circulation unless contraindicated.
Question 5 of 5
A 40-year-old female is losing most of her hair as a result of chemotherapy. Which of the following statements best explains chemotherapy-induced alopecia?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Chemotherapy-induced alopecia is temporary, with hair typically regrowing within months after treatment ends, which is a reassuring and accurate explanation.