Questions 96

NCLEX-PN

NCLEX-PN Test Bank

MSC NCLEX Physiological Integrity Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies Questions

Extract:


Question 1 of 5

The nurse is caring for the client with CA receiving piroxicam. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include in the medication teaching plan?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A: Piroxicam (Feldene) should be taken with food and a full glass of water to prevent gastric irritation and possible bleeding. B: Piroxicam is administered in a once-daily dose, and additional doses should not be taken. C: Because of the gastric irritation and possible reflux, the client should sit upright after taking piroxicam. D: Ginkgo interacts with piroxicam, increasing the risk for bleeding.

Question 2 of 5

The LPN is caring for a client admitted for acute pancreatitis. Which of these medications would be least appropriate for pain management?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Morphine is contraindicated for pain management in pancreatitis because it causes spasms in the Sphincter of Oddi.

Question 3 of 5

The 4-year-old with meningitis is to receive ceftriaxone 750 mg IVPB over 30 minutes. The pharmacy provided 750 mg in 50 mL D5W to be infused IVPB through a microdrip infusion system (tubing drop factor 60 gtt/min). At what rate, in gtt per min, should the nurse program the IVPB pump?

Correct Answer: 100

Rationale: Volume to be infused is 50 mL over 30 minutes. Calculate mL/min: 50 mL/ 30 min = 1.6667 mL/min. Convert to gtt/min using the drop factor: 1.6667 mL/min x 60 gtt/mL = 100 gtt/min.

Question 4 of 5

The client calls the clinic to discuss medications being taken and possible adverse effects. The nurse should conclude that the client is experiencing a common side effect of sertraline when the client provides which information?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should consider that the client has a dry mouth when stating the need to drink fluids more often than usual. Dry mouth is a common side effect of sertraline (Zoloft).

Question 5 of 5

The 14-year-old who has GERD is receiving lansoprazole. Which response should the nurse expect if lansoprazole is achieving the desired therapeutic effect?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A: Lansoprazole would not be expected to change appetite. B: Lansoprazole is not a gastric motility agent. C: Lansoprazole (Prevacid) is a PPI of stomach acid secretion. Decreasing the overall pH allows the gastric mucosa to heal. D: Flatulence is not affected.

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