NCLEX-PN
Maternity NCLEX Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is caring for the 24-year-old client whose pregnancy history is as follows: elective termination age 18 years, spontaneous abortion age 21 years, term vaginal delivery at 22 years old, and currently pregnant again. Which documentation by the nurse of the client’s gravidity and parity is correct?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The client has been pregnant four times in all (gravidity). This client has delivered once (parity) and is currently pregnant, so the parity is 1. Although the client has been pregnant four times in all (gravidity), she would have had to deliver two fetuses over 20 weeks old, regardless of whether either fetus survived. The client has been pregnant four times in all, not three (gravidity). Parity of 1 is correct. The client has been pregnant four times in all, not two times (gravidity). Parity of 1 is correct.
Question 2 of 5
The client has a vaginal delivery of a full-term newborn. Immediately after delivery, the nurse assesses that the client’s perineum and labia are edematous, but she does not have an episiotomy or a perineal laceration. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: If perineal edema is present, ice packs should be applied for the first 24 hours. Ice reduces edema and vulvar irritation. The client should be taught to tighten, not relax, her buttocks when sitting. This compresses the buttocks and reduces pressure on the perineum. After 24 hours, heat is recommended to increase circulation to the area. Donut cushions should be avoided because they promote separation of the buttocks and decrease venous blood flow to the area, thus increasing pain.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse, admitting a 40-week primigravida to the labor unit, just documented the results of a recent vaginal exam: 3/100/—2, RSP. How should the oncoming shift nurse interpret this documentation?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should interpret 3/100/—2, RSP as the cervix is 3 cm dilated, 100% effaced, and the fetus is 2 cm above the maternal ischial spines. RSP means that the fetus is to the right of the mother’s pelvis (R), with the sacrum as the specific presenting part (S), which is a breech position. This fetus is also posterior (P). At —2, the fetus is 2 cm above, not below, the maternal ischial spines. Two centimeters below the ischial spines would be recorded as +2. The cervix is 3 cm, not totally dilated.
Total dilation would be documented as 10 for the first number. Also, the cervix is 100% effaced, which is total effacement (shortening and thinning out). Fetal lie (relationship of long axis or spine of fetus to long axis of mother) is longitudinal, not transverse. The documentation does not specify if the fetal attitude is flexion.
Question 4 of 5
Which intervention is most appropriate for a client with placenta previa?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Placenta previa often requires cesarean delivery to prevent life-threatening bleeding, unlike the other options.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse explains to the group that frequent urination during early pregnancy usually subsides at which time?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Frequent urination subsides in the second trimester as the uterus rises into the abdominal cavity, reducing bladder pressure.