Questions 108

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX-RN Test Bank

Free NCLEX RN Questions for Med Surg Questions

Extract:


Question 1 of 5

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with an anterior myocardial infarction 2 days ago. Upon assessment, the nurse identifies a new systolic murmur at the apex. The nurse should first:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A new systolic murmur post-myocardial infarction may indicate complications like ventricular septal rupture or mitral regurgitation. Assessing vital signs first helps determine the client's stability and guides further actions.

Question 2 of 5

Four days after surgery for internal fixation of a C3 to C4 fracture, a nurse is moving a client from the bed to the wheelchair. The nurse is checking the wheelchair for correct features for this client. Which of the following features of the wheelchair are appropriate for the needs of this client?

Correct Answer: B,D,E

Rationale: A high back and headrest provide neck stability, firm cushions prevent pressure ulcers, and a breath-controlled chair accommodates limited upper extremity function post-C3-C4 injury. A low back or lower seat height could compromise stability or transfer safety.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is assessing a client with heart failure. The nurse should assess the client based on which compensatory mechanisms that are activated in the presence of heart failure? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer: A,B,C,D,E

Rationale: Heart failure activates the sympathetic nervous system (
A), renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (
B), myocardial hypertrophy (
C), natriuretic peptide release (
D), and ventricular dilation (E) to compensate for reduced cardiac output.

Question 4 of 5

Guaifenesin (Robitussin) 300 mg four times a day has been ordered as an expectorant. The dosage strength of the liquid is 200 mg/5 mL. How many milliliters should the nurse administer for each dose?

Correct Answer: 7.5 mL

Rationale:
To calculate the dose: 300 mg ÷ 200 mg/5 mL = 1.5 × 5 mL = 7.5 mL per dose.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse anticipates that the client who has received epidural anesthesia is at decreased risk for a spinal headache because:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Epidural anesthesia uses a noncutting needle, reducing dural puncture risk and thus lowering the incidence of spinal headache compared to spinal anesthesia.

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