NCLEX-PN
Maternity NCLEX Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse explains that, in addition to increased blood volume, which other condition causes varicose veins during pregnancy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Impaired venous return, due to the uterus compressing veins, causes varicose veins, compounded by increased blood volume.
Question 2 of 5
Which intervention is most appropriate for a client with placenta previa?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Placenta previa often requires cesarean delivery to prevent life-threatening bleeding, unlike the other options.
Question 3 of 5
The laboring client is experiencing problems, and the nurse is concerned about possible side effects from the epidural anesthetic just administered. Which problems should the nurse attribute to the epidural anesthetic? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A,C,D,E
Rationale: Breakthrough pain can occur when the continuous infusion rate of the anesthetic agent is below the recommended rate for a therapeutic dose. Breakthrough pain can also occur when the client has a full bladder or when the cervix is completely dilated. A spinal headache can be a complication of epidural anesthesia and occurs when the dura is accidently punctured during epidural placement. A sensory level of T10 is usually maintained during epidural anesthesia; most women are unable to feel a full bladder or to void after receiving an epidural anesthetic. Maternal temperature may be elevated to 100.1°F (37.8°
C) or higher with an epidural. Sympathetic blockade may decrease sweat production and diminish heat loss. Hypertension is a contraindication for epidural anesthesia. A major side effect of epidural anesthesia is hypotension (not hypertension) caused by a spinal blockade, which lowers peripheral resistance, decreases venous return to the heart, and subsequently lessens cardiac output and lowers BP.
Question 4 of 5
On the basis of the client's statement, what can the nurse conclude?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fetal movement in a multigravida is typically felt earlier, around 14-18 weeks, aligning with the client's report.
Question 5 of 5
The pregnant client has an abnormal 1-hour glucose screen and completes a 3-hour, 100-g oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT). Which test results should the nurse interpret as being abnormal?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The fasting blood glucose of 104 mg/dL is abnormal for the OGTT; normal is 95 mg/dL or lower. A 1-hour OGTT value of 179 mg/dL is normal; normal is 180 mg/dL or lower. The 2-hour OGTT value of 146 mg/dL is normal; an abnormal value is 155 mg/dL or higher. The 3-hour OGTT value of 129 mg/dL is normal; an abnormal value is 140 mg/dL or higher.