NCLEX-PN
Maternity NCLEX Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse, admitting a 40-week primigravida to the labor unit, just documented the results of a recent vaginal exam: 3/100/—2, RSP. How should the oncoming shift nurse interpret this documentation?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should interpret 3/100/—2, RSP as the cervix is 3 cm dilated, 100% effaced, and the fetus is 2 cm above the maternal ischial spines. RSP means that the fetus is to the right of the mother’s pelvis (R), with the sacrum as the specific presenting part (S), which is a breech position. This fetus is also posterior (P). At —2, the fetus is 2 cm above, not below, the maternal ischial spines. Two centimeters below the ischial spines would be recorded as +2. The cervix is 3 cm, not totally dilated.
Total dilation would be documented as 10 for the first number. Also, the cervix is 100% effaced, which is total effacement (shortening and thinning out). Fetal lie (relationship of long axis or spine of fetus to long axis of mother) is longitudinal, not transverse. The documentation does not specify if the fetal attitude is flexion.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is teaching the pregnant client during her first trimester. The nurse identifies that which decision is most important for her to make first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A decision regarding labor and delivery location is the priority for the client in order to properly plan for a home birth versus a hospital birth, HCP availability at the location, and type of labor and delivery settings available at the location. The decision on feeding the newborn can be made up to the time of the first feeding. The decision on pain management can be made early but can be changed up through the early stages of labor. The decision of delivery method should be made early but cannot be determined until the decision is made on labor and delivery location.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for the 24-year-old client whose pregnancy history is as follows: elective termination age 18 years, spontaneous abortion age 21 years, term vaginal delivery at 22 years old, and currently pregnant again. Which documentation by the nurse of the client’s gravidity and parity is correct?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The client has been pregnant four times in all (gravidity). This client has delivered once (parity) and is currently pregnant, so the parity is 1. Although the client has been pregnant four times in all (gravidity), she would have had to deliver two fetuses over 20 weeks old, regardless of whether either fetus survived. The client has been pregnant four times in all, not three (gravidity). Parity of 1 is correct. The client has been pregnant four times in all, not two times (gravidity). Parity of 1 is correct.
Question 4 of 5
Which intervention is most appropriate for a client with placenta previa?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Placenta previa often requires cesarean delivery to prevent life-threatening bleeding, unlike the other options.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse teaches the client to recognize which early labor sign?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Bloody show, a mucous discharge tinged with blood, is a common early labor sign as the cervix begins to dilate.