NCLEX-PN
Pharmacology NCLEX Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The elderly client is in a long-term care facility. If the client does not have a daily bowel movement in the morning, he requests a cathartic, bisacodyl (Dulcolax). Which action is most important for the nurse to take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Daily cathartics risk dependence and electrolyte imbalance; discussing complications educates and promotes safer alternatives like fiber.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is preparing to administer 37.5 mg of meperidine (Demerol) IM to a client who is having pain. The medication comes in a 50-mg/mL vial. Which action should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Dose: 37.5 mg / 50 mg/mL = 0.75 mL. Wasting 0.25 mL requires verification by another nurse, per narcotic protocols.
Question 3 of 5
The male client is self-medicating with the H-2 antagonist cimetidine (Tagamet). Which complication can occur while taking this medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cimetidine can cause gynecomastia due to antiandrogen effects, especially in males. Melena, pyrosis, or eructation are unrelated.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is administering an antacid to a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease. Which statement best describes the scientific rationale for administering this medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Antacids neutralize acid and coat the stomach, relieving GERD symptoms. Acid suppression, pH decrease, or prostaglandins are unrelated.
Question 5 of 5
The 68-year-old client is admitted to the emergency department with complaints of slurred speech, right-sided weakness, and ataxia. The emergency department physician ordered thrombolytic therapy for the client. Which action should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A STAT head CT rules out hemorrhagic stroke, a contraindication for thrombolytics, and is the first step per stroke guidelines.