NCLEX Maternity Questions | Nurselytic

Questions 51

NCLEX-PN

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NCLEX Maternity Questions Questions

Extract:


Question 1 of 5

The continuous electronic FHR monitor tracing on the laboring client is no longer recording. How should the nurse immediately respond?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: When the FHR monitor tracing is no longer recording, the nurse should first check for adequate gel under the transducer. There needs to be adequate gel under the transducer for good conduction, and adding gel frequently corrects the problem. Assessing for adequate gel under the transducer and repositioning should be done before assuming there is a problem with the baby’s HR. There is no indication to give oxygen to the client. Auscultating FHR by fetoscope and assessing maternal VS could be completed, but not until the transducer has been checked.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse is reviewing the medication history of the client during preconception counseling. The client reports taking isotretinoin for acne. Which is the nurse’s best response?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The best response is to have the client consult her HCP so another medication can be prescribed. This response indicates that isotretinoin (Accutane) is not safe but that alternative medications can be prescribed. Responding to the client emphatically can create anxiety and fear. Telling the client that getting pregnant is not an option is a paternal response and does not facilitate open communication. Clients must wait one month after cessation of isotretinoin before becoming pregnant.

Question 3 of 5

The full-term pregnant client presents with bright red vaginal bleeding and intense abdominal pain. Her BP is 150/96 mm Hg, and her pulse is 109 bpm. The nurse should immediately implement interventions for which possible complication?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should immediately implement interventions for placental abruption. This occurs when the placenta separates from the uterine wall before the birth of the fetus. It is commonly associated with preeclampsia. Placenta previa is marked by painless vaginal bleeding. Bloody show is a normal physiological sign associated with normal labor progression and is marked by bloody, mucuslike consistency. Succenturiate placenta is the presence of one or more accessory lobes that develop on the placenta with vascular connections of fetal origin.

Question 4 of 5

The oncoming shift nurse assesses the fundus of the postpartum client 6 hours after a vaginal birth and finds that it is firm. When the nurse then assists the client out of bed for the first time, blood begins to run down the client’s leg. Which action by the nurse in response to the client’s bleeding is correct?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Lochia normally pools in the vagina when the postpartum client remains in a recumbent position for any length of time. When the client then stands, gravity causes the blood to flow out. As long as the nurse knows the fundus is firm and not bleeding, a simple explanation to the client is all that is required. There is no reason to return the client to bed; the fundus is firm. There is no reason to push the emergency call light. Increased bleeding is an expected response when standing for the first time. There is no reason to call the HCP.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse advises the client to clean the newborn's umbilical cord with which substance?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Cleaning with alcohol or antiseptic as prescribed prevents infection until the cord stump falls off.

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