NCLEX-PN
Gastrointestinal NCLEX Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The client with cirrhosis is scheduled for a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) placement. The nurse realizes the client does not understand the procedure when the client makes which statement?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A. This statement indicates the client does not understand the procedure. There is no need for an abdominal incision. The TIPS is placed through the jugular vein and threaded down to the hepatic vein. B. The TIPS procedure will decrease pressure in the portal vein and thus decrease the risk of bleeding from esophageal varices. C. There is a risk that the stent that is placed will become occluded. D. The shunt will decrease ascites formation.
Question 2 of 5
The client with cirrhosis is scheduled for a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) placement. The nurse realizes the client does not understand the procedure when the client makes which statement?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A. This statement indicates the client does not understand the procedure. There is no need for an abdominal incision. The TIPS is placed through the jugular vein and threaded down to the hepatic vein. B. The TIPS procedure will decrease pressure in the portal vein and thus decrease the risk of bleeding from esophageal varices. C. There is a risk that the stent that is placed will become occluded. D. The shunt will decrease ascites formation.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is taking a hospital admission history for the 40-year-old client. The nurse is concerned about possible acute pancreatitis when the client makes which statement?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A. The predominant symptom of acute pancreatitis is severe, deep or piercing, continuous or steady abdominal pain in the upper left quadrant. The pain may radiate to the back because of the retroperitoneal location of the pancreas. Middle-aged individuals are at increased risk for developing acute pancreatitis. B. Abdominal pain located mainly in the right lower quadrant may be a symptom of appendicitis (not pancreatitis). Appendicitis is more common in younger adults. C. Bloody diarrhea and colicky abdominal pain are symptoms of IBD, also more common in young adults. D. Upper abdominal pain and projectile vomiting are symptoms of gastric outlet obstruction or another GI disorder and not pancreatitis.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is reviewing the health history of the client hospitalized with nonalcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD). Which finding should the nurse associate with this disease process?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A. Adults in their forties are most at risk for NAFLD, not someone 70 years of age. B. The client’s BMI is 35; a BMI of greater than 30 indicates obesity. The risk for developing NAFLD is directly related to body weight and is a major complication of obesity. C. Antibiotic use has no influence on NAFLD development. D. Climate has no influence on NAFLD development.
Question 5 of 5
The client diagnosed with end-stage liver failure is admitted with esophageal bleeding. The HCP inserts and inflates a triple-lumen nasogastric tube (Sengstaken-Blakemore). Which nursing intervention should the nurse implement for this treatment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Sengstaken-Blakemore tube can dislodge or cause complications like aspiration, requiring constant monitoring. Gag reflex, lactulose, and ammonia are unrelated to this intervention.