NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The client undergoing detoxification from chronic alcohol abuse is to receive Phenobarbital 120 mg IM and promethazine 50 mg IM. Which explanation by the nurse about using this medication combination is correct?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Promethazine (Phenergan) potentiates the CNS depression of phenobarbital, producing a greater sedative effect.
Question 2 of 5
Six months after starting disulfiram for treatment of alcoholism, the client has serum laboratory tests completed (see exhibit). Place an X on each serum laboratory result that the nurse should report immediately to the HCP.
Correct Answer: B,C,DE,F
Rationale: Abnormal liver function tests (low albumin, elevated AST, ALT, total bilirubin, ALP) should be reported due to disulfiram's potential liver effects. [Image-based question; X on abnormal LFTs.]
Question 3 of 5
The Native American client is being assessed for emotional distress following a family crisis. In anticipating pharmacological treatment, the nurse understands that the Native American client would most likely do what?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Native American cultures often use herbal or plant remedies with healing properties.
Question 4 of 5
The client with schizophrenia has a history of nonadherence to the prescribed medication regimen. Injectable antipsychotic agents are being considered for long-term use. Which medications, if prescribed by the HCP, should the nurse question? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A,B,C
Rationale: Olanzapine and ziprasidone injections are for short-term use, and aripiprazole is not available in injectable form.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is leading a group session for clients with panic disorder. Which statement made by the client indicates that further teaching is needed?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Buspirone, not diazepam (Valium), is the long-term medication of choice for panic disorder due to its nonaddicting quality.