NCLEX-PN
Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies NCLEX Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The client taking rifampin brings a sample of urine that is orange in color to the clinic. Which interventions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: B,C,E
Rationale: A: A C&S is unnecessary because orange-colored urine is a normal finding in the client taking rifampin. B: The nurse should reassure the client that orange-colored urine is a normal finding in the client taking rifampin (Rifadin). C: The nurse should teach the client that the orange-colored urine and sweat can stain clothing and that the client should consider wearing nonwhite clothing or using undergarments if sweating is excessive. D: It is unnecessary to question continuation of rifampin if the urine is orange-colored because this is a normal finding. E: The nurse should inform the client that other body fluids, such as tears, sweat, and saliva, can also turn orange-colored with the use of rifampin (Rifadin).
Question 2 of 5
The client is started on citalopram for treatment of depression. Which information is most important for the nurse to include when teaching the client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sexual dysfunction is a common side effect associated with the use of SSRIs; the client taking citalopram (Celexa), an SSRI, should consult the HCP if having unbearable sexual side effects.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse notes from the child's MAR illustrated that the child is to receive the first dose of a newly prescribed medication at 0800 hours. The drug reference book recommends an initial pediatric dose of lamotrigine of 0.6 mg/kg/day in two divided doses for the first 2 weeks. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A: Although the medication is written on the MAR, an error still exists in the dose, and the medication should not be administered. B: The nurse should notify the HCP. The child weighs 30 kg; the recommended initial daily dose of lamotrigine (Lamictal) for this child would be 18 mg (0.6 x 30 = 18 mg). If given 18 mg bid, the child would receive a daily dose of 36 mg, twice the recommended initial pediatric dose. C: The child has a new-onset seizure disorder; it is unlikely that the child was taking this medication prior to hospitalization. D: Consulting the pharmacist is unnecessary; the nurse still needs to seek clarification from the HCP.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is reviewing information for the 6-month-old who is being given ranitidine. Which finding should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of ranitidine?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A: An HR of 110 bpm is normal for a 6-month-old; the range is 80-170 bpm. B: Fever (temperature of 102.7°F) is not an adverse effect of ranitidine. C: Ranitidine is indicated for GERD; spitting up after feedings should improve. If not, then the medication dose may be too low or the medication itself ineffective. Spitting up is not a side effect. D: The nurse should identify that a hard, pebble-like bowel movement every 2 days demonstrates constipation; constipation is an adverse effect of ranitidine (Zantac).
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is assessing the client. Which findings indicate that the client may be experiencing physical changes from long-term use of prednisone? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A,C,D
Rationale: A: Weight gain and muscle atrophy are body changes that may occur with long-term glucocorticoid therapy. B: Muscle wasting (not increased muscle mass) is a side effect of prednisone. C: Fragile skin is a possible body change that may occur with long-term glucocorticoid therapy. D: Acne vulgaris may occur with long-term glucocorticoid therapy. E: Hirsutism (not alopecia) is a side effect of prednisone.