NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The client has jaundice, elevated liver enzymes, and an elevated serum bilirubin. What color urine does the nurse expect to find?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is dark amber. In jaundice, the elevated bilirubin levels are excreted in the urine, giving it a dark amber color.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because in jaundice, the urine typically appears dark amber due to the presence of elevated bilirubin, not pink-tinged, straw-colored, or clear.
Question 2 of 5
What is the most common cause of acute renal failure?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Shock.' Acute renal failure is commonly caused by inadequate blood flow to the kidneys, which can occur in cases of shock. This leads to decreased kidney function and potential kidney damage. While nephrotoxic drugs can also cause acute renal failure, shock is the primary and most common cause. An enlarged prostate may lead to obstructive uropathy but is not the most prevalent cause of acute renal failure. Diabetes is typically associated with chronic kidney disease rather than acute renal failure.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with full-thickness burns to the left arm and trunk. What is the priority for this client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct! With full-thickness burns, there is a significant risk of fluid loss through the burn wound and fluid shift, leading to hypovolemia and shock. Monitoring and maintaining the client's fluid volume status is crucial to prevent complications like hypovolemic shock. Pain management (Option
A) is essential but not the priority in this situation. While airway assessment (Option
B) is crucial, it is typically assessed first in clients with respiratory distress. Preventing infection (Option
D) is important but managing fluid volume status takes precedence in the initial care of a client with full-thickness burns.
Question 4 of 5
The client has just returned from electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) and is very drowsy. What is the position of choice until the client regains full consciousness?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Lateral.' When a client is very drowsy or sedated, placing them in the lateral position is important to maintain an open airway and allow for drainage of secretions. This position helps prevent airway obstruction and aspiration.
Choice A, 'Supine,' is lying flat on the back and may not be ideal for a drowsy client due to the risk of airway compromise.
Choice B, 'Fowlers,' is a semi-sitting position that is beneficial for clients with respiratory distress, but it may not be the best choice for a very drowsy individual.
Choice D, 'High Fowlers,' is a more upright sitting position, which again may not be suitable for a drowsy client as it does not facilitate airway patency as effectively as the lateral position.
Question 5 of 5
What is most important for the healthcare professional to do prior to initiating peritoneal dialysis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to warm the fluids. Warming the dialysis fluids is crucial before initiating peritoneal dialysis to prevent abdominal discomfort and promote vasodilation, which helps in achieving good exchange in the peritoneum. Aspirating to check placement (
Choice
A) is not typically necessary before initiating peritoneal dialysis. Ensuring the client voids (
Choice
B) is not directly related to the procedure of peritoneal dialysis. Irrigating the catheter to maintain patency (
Choice
C) is usually done as part of routine care but is not specifically required prior to initiating peritoneal dialysis.
Therefore, the most important action to take before starting peritoneal dialysis is to warm the fluids.