NCLEX-PN
MSC NCLEX Physiological Integrity Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The 40-year-old client is receiving levothyroxine for treatment of hypothyroidism. Which serum laboratory results should lead the nurse to conclude that the client's dose is adequate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A: Cortisol levels are used to evaluate adrenal and not thyroid function. B: Restoration of normal laboratory values for TSH and free T4 indicates that the dose of levothyroxine (Synthroid) is therapeutic. C: T3 is used to evaluate the effectiveness of liothyronine and propylthiouracil, used in the treatment of thyroid disorders. D: The WBC count is used to determine if the client has an infection. Evaluation of serum glucose and potassium levels is unrelated to the use of levothyroxine.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is preparing to administer morphine sulfate IV to the child in severe pain. The child has an IV infusion of D5W at 50 mL/hr through a PICC. Which intervention is best when administering the medication?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A: Unnecessary IV disconnections increase the risk for infection. Morphine sulfate is compatible with D5W. B: Morphine sulfate can be administered into a PICC access device. C: Administering undiluted morphine sulfate to a child increases the risk of adverse effects. D: The nurse should dilute the morphine sulfate before administration to prevent too-rapid administration and adverse effects. A single dose should be given over 4 to 5 minutes.
Question 3 of 5
The client seeking treatment for insomnia tells the nurse about researching complementary therapies for promoting sleep. Which are herbal remedies for promoting sleep that the client may wish to discuss with the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Chamomile tea and hops are believed to relieve insomnia.
Question 4 of 5
The 16-year-old is taking acyclovir. Which statement, if made by the adolescent, should indicate to the nurse that the medication is having the desired therapeutic effect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A: A side effect of acyclovir is a change in the menstrual cycle; however, having a regular menstrual cycle is not the desired therapeutic effect. B: A bad odor from the vagina is a symptom of bacterial vaginosis or trichomoniasis vaginalis, and usually not a symptom of genital herpes simplex. C: Acyclovir (Zovirax), an antiviral medication, is indicated for the treatment of genital herpes simplex virus, shingles, or chicken pox. Labial sores are associated with genital herpes simplex. Improvement of labial sores indicates that acyclovir is having the desired therapeutic effect. D: A green vaginal discharge may be a symptom of Trichomonas, which is treated with metronidazole (Flagyl), an amebicide.
Question 5 of 5
The client is prescribed medications on hospital admission. Four days later the client's serum creatinine level, which was normal at admission, is now 3.7 mg/dL. The nurse should contact the HCP regarding a dosage change for which medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A: The nurse should contact the HCP regarding ceftriaxone (Rocephin). Ceftriaxone, a third-generation cephalosporin antibiotic, is 33% to 67% excreted in the urine unchanged. Dosage reduction or increased dosing interval is recommended in renal insufficiency because ceftriaxone is nephrotoxic and can further damage the kidneys. B: Insulin glargine (Lantus) is partially metabolized at the site of injection to active insulin metabolites and partially metabolized by the liver, the spleen, the kidney, and muscle tissue; no dose reduction is necessary unless serum glucose levels fluctuate. C: Diltiazem (Cardizem) is mostly metabolized by the liver; no dose reduction is necessary. D: Furosemide (Lasix) is 30% to 40% metabolized by the liver with some nonhepatic metabolism and renal excretion as unchanged medication; no dose reduction is necessary.