Questions 116

NCLEX-RN

Home > NCLEX-RN > RN Medical Surgical Nursing > Health Care of the Older Adult NCLEX
NCLEX-RN Test Bank

Health Care of the Older Adult NCLEX Questions

Extract:


Question 1 of 5

An overweight client taking warfarin (Coumadin) has a nursing diagnosis of ineffective tissue perfusion related to decreased arterial blood flow. What should the nurse instruct the client to do? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer: B,C,E

Rationale: Rationales:
B) A reduced-calorie, reduced-fat diet helps manage weight and reduce atherosclerosis progression, improving arterial blood flow.
C) Daily inspection for ulcerations is essential in PVD to detect early skin breakdown due to poor perfusion. E) Using an electric razor minimizes the risk of cuts and bleeding, which is critical for a client on warfarin.
A) Applying lanolin or petroleum jelly is not directly related to improving tissue perfusion.
D) Limiting ADLs is incorrect, as moderate activity promotes circulation unless contraindicated.

Question 2 of 5

Correct Answer:

Rationale:

Question 3 of 5

Correct Answer:

Rationale:

Question 4 of 5

Correct Answer:

Rationale:

Question 5 of 5

Correct Answer:

Rationale:

Similar Questions

The nurse teaches the client how to instill nose drops. Which of the following techniques is correct?
The client with Hodgkin's disease undergoes an excisional cervical lymph node biopsy under local anesthesia. After the procedure, which does the nurse assess first?
The nurse receives a prescription from the primary healthcare provider (PHCP) for metoprolol 5 mL intravenous (IV) push x 1 dose. The nurse should take which priority action before administering the medication?
A client with a history of hypertension and peripheral vascular disease underwent an aortobifemoral bypass graft. Preoperative medications included pentoxifylline (Trental); metoprolol (Toprol XL); and furosemide (Lasix). On postoperative day 1, the 12 noon vital signs are: Temperature 37.2°C; heart rate 132 beats per minute; respiratory rate 20; blood pressure 126/78. Urine output is 50 to 70 mL/hour. The hemoglobin and hematocrit are stable. Using the SBAR (Situation-Background-Assessment-Recommendation) technique for communication, the nurse recommends to the primary care provider:
A client develops lymphedema after a left mastectomy with lymph node dissection. Which of the following should be included in the discharge teaching plan? Select all that apply.

Access More Questions!

NCLEX RN Basic

$89/ 30 days

 

NCLEX RN Premium

$150/ 90 days