NCLEX-RN
Med Surg RN NCLEX Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
An adult client with type 2 diabetes is taking metformin (Glucophage) 1,000 mg two times every day. After the nurse provides instructions regarding the interaction of alcohol and metformin, the nurse evaluates that the client understands the instructions when the client says:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Alcohol combined with metformin increases the risk of lactic acidosis, a serious complication. The client should avoid alcohol while taking metformin.
Question 2 of 5
A 58-year-old client with pancreatic cancer, who has been bed-bound for 3 weeks, has just returned from having a left subclavian, long-term, tunneled catheter inserted for administration of analgesics. The nurse has not yet received radiographic results for confirmation of placement. The client becomes diaphoretic and complains of chest pain radiating to the middle of his back. Physical assessment reveals tachycardia and absent breath sounds in the left lung. The nurse should further assess the client for:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Absent breath sounds, chest pain, and tachycardia post-catheter insertion suggest a pneumothorax, a known complication of subclavian catheter placement, requiring urgent assessment.
Question 3 of 5
A client has a ureteral catheter in place after renal surgery. A priority nursing action for care of the ureteral catheter would be to:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ensuring free drainage prevents obstruction or pressure buildup, which could harm the surgical site or kidney function.
Question 4 of 5
A client with Cushing's disease tells the nurse that the physician said the morning serum cortisol level was within normal limits. The client asks, 'How can that be? I'm not imagining all these symptoms!' The nurse's response will be based on which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cushing's disease disrupts the normal diurnal cortisol rhythm, leading to consistently high levels, which may not be captured in a single morning test.
Question 5 of 5
A client with iron deficiency anemia is refusing to take the prescribed oral iron medication because the medication is causing nausea. The nurse should do which of the following? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A,B,E
Rationale: Nausea and vomiting are common adverse effects of oral iron preparations. The nurse should first ask the client why she does not want to take the oral medication, and then suggest ways to decrease the nausea and vomiting. Ginger may help minimize the nausea and the client can try this remedy and evaluate its effectiveness. Iron should be taken on an empty stomach but can be taken with orange juice to enhance absorption and potentially reduce nausea. The client can evaluate if this helps the nausea. Stool softeners are not typically recommended for iron deficiency anemia, as constipation is better managed with a high-fiber diet. Intramuscular iron is a last resort and not appropriate unless oral administration is ineffective.