Questions 40

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX-RN Test Bank

NCLEX RN Psychosocial Integrity Questions

Extract:


Question 1 of 5

An 11-year-old child scheduled for a diagnostic procedure will have an intravenous line inserted and will receive an intramuscular injection. Which form of communication should the nurse use in preparing the child for the procedure?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Using pictures, concrete words, and demonstrations is the most effective way to communicate with an 11-year-old child about a medical procedure, as it aligns with their developmental stage and helps them understand what to expect. Option 1 may not fully address the child's need for clear explanations. Option 2 relies on parents, which may not be as direct or effective. Option 3 dismisses the child's concerns and is nontherapeutic.

Question 2 of 5

A client has been prescribed imipramine. The nurse notifies the primary health care provider if which adverse effect to the medication is noted?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Imipramine is a tricyclic antidepressant that is used to treat various forms of depression and anxiety. The client is also often in psychotherapy while prescribed this medication. Adverse effects to report to the primary health care provider include drowsiness, lethargy, and fatigue. Expected effects of the medication include an increased appetite and time spent sleeping, a reduced sense of anxiety, and an improved sense of well-being.

Question 3 of 5

A client has just given birth to a newborn who has a cleft lip and palate. When planning to talk with the client, the nurse recognizes that the client needs to first work through which emotion before maternal bonding can occur?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should recognize that a mother will go through the grief process after giving birth to a child with a birth defect. After the grief process, the mother can begin to focus on bonding with the infant. The remaining options are incorrect because they are each only one component of the grief process.

Question 4 of 5

When performing an assessment on a client who is suicidal, which question is the most appropriate for the nurse to ask?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: A lethality assessment requires direct communication between the client and the nurse concerning the client's intent. It is important to provide a question that is directly related to lethality. Euphemisms should be avoided.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse is caring for a client who presented to the ED with a blood alcohol level of 208 mg/dL. The client states that his last drink was about 8 hours ago. He exhibits coarse tremors of the hands, anxiety, and elevated blood pressure. Which of the following would the nurse expect if his condition progresses to withdrawal delirium? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer: A,E,F

Rationale: Withdrawal delirium typically includes fever, disorientation, and fluctuating consciousness, with onset 48-72 hours after the last drink. Increased appetite or excessive sleeping are not typical.

Similar Questions

Access More Questions!

NCLEX RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

 

NCLEX RN Premium


$150/ 90 days