NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Psychosocial Integrity Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
According to the CDC, which of the following age groups is most likely to meet the criteria for major depression?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: According to the CDC, individuals aged 45-64 years are most likely to meet the criteria for major depression. While patients in the 18-24 year age group are more likely to report symptoms of depression, when it comes to major depression, the prevalence is higher in the 45-64 year age group.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the CDC indicates that major depression is most prevalent in the 45-64 year age group.
Question 2 of 5
A client at a local university claims to be the president of the university. Which type of delusion is the client displaying?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Grandiose.' This type of delusion involves an exaggerated sense of self-importance, where the individual believes they are a prominent figure or possess special abilities. In this scenario, the client claiming to be the president of the university is displaying grandiose delusions. Somatic delusions relate to bodily functions or sensations, which are not present in this case. Erotomanic delusions involve the fixed belief that another person is in love with the individual, which is not applicable here. Persecutory delusions involve the belief that one is being targeted or conspired against, which is also not demonstrated in the given situation.
Question 3 of 5
According to the CDC, which of the following age groups is most likely to meet the criteria for major depression?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: According to the CDC, individuals aged 45-64 years are most likely to meet the criteria for major depression. While patients in the 18-24 year age group are more likely to report symptoms of depression, when it comes to major depression, the prevalence is higher in the 45-64 year age group.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the CDC indicates that major depression is most prevalent in the 45-64 year age group.
Question 4 of 5
Which behavior by the client exhibits denial after a recent diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Attempts to minimize the illness.' This behavior is a classic sign of denial, where the individual tries to downplay the seriousness of the illness to cope with it. By minimizing the illness, the client avoids facing the reality of the situation, which is characteristic of denial. Lacking an emotional response to the illness suggests suppression of emotions rather than denial. Refusing to discuss the condition with the spouse may stem from other issues like relationship strain or fear of causing distress, but it doesn't directly indicate denial. Expressing displeasure with the prescribed activity program typically reflects displaced anger, not denial of the illness.
Question 5 of 5
A terminally ill client repeatedly talks about her son's upcoming wedding and how much she wants to attend. Which stage of the Kübler-Ross theory of death and dying is the client displaying?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The client is displaying the stage of bargaining in the Kübler-Ross theory of death and dying. During the bargaining stage, individuals attempt to negotiate for more time or a different outcome in the face of impending death. In this scenario, the client expressing a desire to attend her son's wedding and discussing it frequently reflects a form of bargaining for additional time to be present for the event. Anger, on the other hand, involves extreme expressions of emotion ranging from irritation to rage. Denial is characterized by an inability to accept the reality of the situation. Acceptance signifies coming to terms with the circumstances and may lead to decreased interest in people and surroundings.