Questions 82

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NCLEX RN Maternity Questions Questions

Extract:


Question 1 of 5

A viable male neonate delivered to a 28-year-old multiparous client by cesarean delivery because of placenta previa is diagnosed with respiratory distress syndrome. Which of the following would the nurse explain as the factor placing the neonate at the greatest risk for this syndrome?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Preterm delivery is the primary risk factor for RDS due to immature lung development and insufficient surfactant production.

Question 2 of 5

Correct Answer:

Rationale:

Question 3 of 5

Correct Answer:

Rationale:

Question 4 of 5

Correct Answer:

Rationale:

Question 5 of 5

Correct Answer:

Rationale:

Similar Questions

A primigravid client at 30 weeks' gestation has been admitted to the hospital with premature rupture of the membranes without contractions. Her cervix is 2 cm dilated and 50% effaced. The nurse should next assess the client's:
After instructing a primigravid client at 38 weeks' gestation about how preeclampsia can affect the client and the growing fetus, the nurse realizes that the client needs additional instruction when she says that preeclampsia can lead to which of the following?
A primigravida is admitted to the labor area with ruptured membranes and contractions occurring every 2 to 3 minutes, lasting 45 seconds. After 3 hours of labor, the client's contractions are now every 7 to 10 minutes, lasting 30 seconds. The nurse administers oxytocin (Pitocin) as ordered. The expected outcome of this drug is:
A multigravid client is receiving oxytocin (Pitocin) augmentation. When the client's cervix is dilated to 6 cm, her membranes rupture spontaneously with meconium-stained amniotic fluid. Which of the following actions should the nurse do first?
Which of the following would be most important for the nurse to encourage in a primiparous client diagnosed with endometritis who is receiving intravenous antibiotic therapy?

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