NCLEX Questions Respiratory

Extract:

Question 1 of 5

A patient is receiving continuous IV Heparin for anticoagulation therapy for the treatment of a DVT. In order for this medication to have a therapeutic effect on the patient, the aPTT should be?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: An aPTT should be 1.5-2.5 times the normal value range for Heparin to achieve a therapeutic effect in a patient to prevent blood clots. If the aPTT is too low, blood clots can form. If the aPTT is too high, bleeding can occur.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse is preparing the client diagnosed with laryngeal cancer for a laryngectomy in the morning. Which intervention is the nurse's priority?

A. Take the client to the intensive care unit for a visit. B. Explain that the client will need to ask for pain medication. C. Demonstrate the use of an antiembolism hose. D. Find out if the client can read and write.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Literacy (
D) ensures post-laryngectomy communication (e.g., writing), a priority. ICU visit (
A), pain requests (
B), and TED hose (
C) are secondary.

Question 3 of 5

Which of the following patients are MOST at risk for developing pneumonia? Select-all-that-apply:

A. A 53 year old female recovering from abdominal surgery. B. A 69 year old patient who recently received the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine. C. A 42 year old male with COPD and is on continuous oxygen via nasal cannula. D. A 8 month old with RSV (respiratory syncytial virus) infection.

Correct Answer: A,C,D

Rationale: Patients recovering from surgery are at risk due to immobility and impaired cough reflex, those with COPD have chronic lung disease increasing susceptibility, and infants with RSV are prone to secondary bacterial pneumonia. The vaccinated patient has reduced risk due to immunity.

Question 4 of 5

The post-anesthesia care nurse is caring for the client diagnosed with lung cancer who had a thoracotomy and is experiencing frequent premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

A. Request STAT arterial blood gases. B. Administer lidocaine intravenous push. C. Assess for possible causes. D. Request a STAT electrocardiogram.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Frequent PVCs post-thoracotomy may stem from hypoxia, electrolyte imbalances, or pain. Assessing for causes (
C) is the first step to identify and address the underlying issue. ABGs (
A) or ECG (
D) may follow based on findings. Lidocaine (
B) is premature without identifying the cause.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse is preparing to administer warfarin (Coumadin), an oral anticoagulant, to a client diagnosed with a pulmonary embolus. Which data would cause the nurse to question administering the medication?

A. The client's partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is 38. B. The client's international normalized ratio (INR) is 5. C. The client's prothrombin time (PT) is 22. D. The client's erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is 10.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: An INR of 5 (
B) is above the therapeutic range (2–3 for pulmonary embolus), indicating excessive anticoagulation and bleeding risk, so warfarin should be questioned. PTT (
A) is for heparin, not warfarin. PT (
C) alone is not standardized. ESR (
D) is irrelevant to anticoagulation.

NCLEX Questions Respiratory | Nurselytic

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