NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A patient is getting discharged from a skilled nursing facility (SNF). The patient has a history of severe COPD and PVD. The patient is primarily concerned about his ability to breathe easily. Which of the following would be the best instruction for this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the patient to cough following bronchodilator utilization. In COPD and PVD patients, bronchodilators help to open up the airways, making coughing more effective in clearing secretions from the lungs. This instruction can aid in improving the patient's ability to breathe by enhancing airway clearance. Deep breathing techniques (
Choice
A) may help increase oxygen levels but may not directly address the patient's immediate concern of breathing difficulty. Coughing regularly and deeply (
Choice
B) can be beneficial, but the timing following bronchodilator use is more crucial to maximize its effectiveness. Decreasing CO2 levels by increasing oxygen intake during meals (
Choice
D) does not directly address the patient's concern about breathing ease or the role of bronchodilators in improving cough effectiveness.
Question 2 of 5
When taking a patient’s history, she mentions being depressed and dealing with an anxiety disorder. Which of the following medications would the patient most likely be taking?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Amitriptyline (Elavil) as it is a tricyclic antidepressant commonly used to treat symptoms of depression and anxiety disorders. Amitriptyline works by increasing the levels of certain neurotransmitters in the brain to improve mood.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Calcitonin is a hormone used in the treatment of osteoporosis; Pergolide mesylate is a dopamine agonist used in Parkinson's disease; Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker used to treat high blood pressure and certain heart conditions, not mental health disorders.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a 27-year-old female client with a venous stasis ulcer. Which nursing intervention would be most effective in promoting healing?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Venous stasis occurs when venous blood collects and stagnates in the lower leg due to incompetent venous valves. This leads to inadequate oxygen and nutrient supply to the cells in the lower extremities, resulting in cell death or necrosis. Venous stasis ulcers, characterized by shallow brown wounds with irregular margins, typically develop on the lower leg or ankle. The primary goal in managing clients with venous stasis ulcers is to promote healing. Proper nutrition plays a crucial role in wound healing. Nutritional deficiencies are common causes of venous ulcers, and a diet rich in protein, iron, zinc, and vitamins C and A is recommended to enhance wound healing. Applying dressings with sterile technique, initiating limb compression therapy, and beginning proteolytic debridement are important interventions in wound care but may not directly address the underlying issue of poor nutrition that is essential for healing venous stasis ulcers.
Question 4 of 5
A child is seen in the emergency department for scarlet fever. Which of the following descriptions of scarlet fever is not correct?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Petechiae on the soft palate are not a typical finding in scarlet fever. Scarlet fever is caused by group A Streptococcus bacteria, often presenting with a strawberry tongue, red and swollen pharynx, and a sandpaper-like rash. The presence of petechiae on the soft palate is more commonly associated with conditions like rubella rather than scarlet fever.
Therefore, this description is not correct in the context of scarlet fever.
Question 5 of 5
A 28-year-old male has been found wandering around in a confusing pattern. The male is sweaty and pale. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a 28-year-old male presenting with confusion, sweating, and pallor, the most likely cause is hypoglycemia, especially with no mention of trauma or infection.
Therefore, the initial test to be performed should be a blood sugar check to rule out low blood sugar levels. Checking blood sugar levels is crucial in such a scenario as hypoglycemia can lead to altered mental status. A CT scan (choice
B) is not typically the initial test for altered mental status without any focal neurological signs or head trauma. Blood cultures (choice
C) are more relevant in cases suspected of infection, which is not a primary concern in this scenario. Arterial blood gases (choice
D) may be considered later if there are concerns about respiratory status or acid-base disturbances, but in this case, checking the blood sugar level is the most immediate and appropriate action.