NCLEX RN Exam Questions - Nurselytic

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for Bleeding.' A patient with dementia may have impaired judgment and may be prone to falls or injuries, increasing the risk of bleeding while on heparin therapy. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is crucial in this situation.
Choice A, 'Back Pain,' is not a common side effect of heparin.
Choice B, 'Fever and Chills,' is not a typical side effect of heparin but may indicate other underlying conditions.
Choice D, 'Dizziness,' is not a common side effect of heparin and is not the primary concern in this scenario.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct nursing action for a patient with balloon tamponade for bleeding esophageal varices is to monitor the patient for shortness of breath. The most common complication of balloon tamponade is aspiration pneumonia. Additionally, if the gastric balloon ruptures, the esophageal balloon may slip upward and occlude the airway. Instructing the patient to cough every hour is incorrect as coughing increases the pressure on the varices and raises the risk of bleeding. Verifying the position of the balloon every 4 hours is unnecessary as it is typically done after insertion. Deflating the gastric balloon if the patient reports nausea is incorrect because deflating it may cause the esophageal balloon to occlude the airway, leading to complications.
Therefore, monitoring for signs of respiratory distress is crucial in this situation.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is a palpable abdominal mass. In a 46-year-old woman with acute pancreatitis, a palpable abdominal mass may indicate the presence of a pancreatic abscess, which requires rapid surgical drainage to prevent sepsis. Absent bowel sounds, abdominal tenderness, and left upper quadrant pain are common symptoms in acute pancreatitis but do not necessarily indicate an immediate need for surgical intervention.
Therefore, the presence of a palpable abdominal mass is the most concerning finding in this scenario.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct preparation for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP) involves administering a laxative to the client the evening before the examination. This is crucial to ensure adequate bowel preparation, which in turn allows for better visualization of the bladder and ureters during the procedure. An IVP is an x-ray exam that utilizes contrast material to evaluate the kidneys, ureters, and bladder, aiding in the diagnosis of conditions like blood in the urine or pain in the side or lower back. Administering a laxative helps in achieving optimal imaging quality, which is essential for accurate diagnosis and subsequent treatment planning.

Choice A is incorrect because maintaining a regular diet is not the standard preparation for an IVP.
Choice B is incorrect as fluid intake is not typically restricted for this procedure.
Choice D is incorrect as an IVP involves multiple x-rays to assess the urinary system, not just one of the abdomen.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTC
A) is a procedure that involves compressing plaque against the wall of a diseased coronary artery to improve blood flow. It is a minimally invasive procedure performed during a cardiac catheterization to open blockages in the coronary arteries. Surgical repair of a diseased coronary artery refers to procedures like coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG), not PTCA. Placement of an automatic internal cardiac defibrillator is a different intervention used for managing cardiac arrhythmias, not for improving coronary blood flow. A non-invasive radiographic examination of the heart would typically refer to procedures like a cardiac CT scan or an MRI, not PTCA.