NCLEX-PN
NCLEX-PN Quizlet 2023 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A female sex worker enters a clinic for treatment of a sexually transmitted disease. This disease is the most prevalent STD in the United States. The nurse can anticipate that the woman has which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The question describes a female sex worker seeking treatment for the most prevalent sexually transmitted disease in the United States. Chlamydia is the correct answer as it is the most common STD in the country according to epidemiological studies. While herpes (choice
A) is common, it is not the most prevalent. Gonorrhea (choice
C) and syphilis (choice
D) are less prevalent compared to chlamydia, making them incorrect choices.
Question 2 of 5
A client receives a cervical intracavity radium implant as part of her therapy. A common side effect of a cervical implant is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'creamy, pink-tinged vaginal drainage.' This side effect persists for 1 to 2 months after the removal of a cervical implant. Diarrhea, not constipation, is usually a side effect of cervical implants. Stomatitis and xerostomia are local side effects of radiation to the mouth, not associated with cervical implants.
Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect.
Question 3 of 5
A client begins a regimen of chemotherapy. Her platelet count falls to 98,000. Which action is least likely to increase the risk of hemorrhage?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to implement reverse isolation. Reverse isolation is a protective measure used to protect patients from infections, not to affect the risk of hemorrhage. Testing all excreta for occult blood (
Choice
A) is important to monitor for signs of internal bleeding. Using a soft toothbrush or foam cleaner for oral hygiene (
Choice
B) is recommended to prevent gum bleeding. Avoiding IM injections (
Choice
D) is crucial to reduce the risk of bleeding in a client with a low platelet count.
Therefore, among the given options, implementing reverse isolation is the least likely to increase the risk of hemorrhage.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following diseases or conditions is least likely to be associated with an increased potential for bleeding?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pernicious anemia is least likely to be associated with an increased potential for bleeding. Pernicious anemia results from vitamin B12 deficiency due to a lack of intrinsic factor, leading to faulty absorption from the gastrointestinal tract. While pernicious anemia can lead to other health issues, bleeding tendencies are not a primary concern. Metastatic liver cancer (choice
A) can cause liver dysfunction leading to decreased synthesis of clotting factors, increasing the risk of bleeding. Gram-negative septicemia (choice
B) can lead to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DI
C) causing excessive bleeding. Iron-deficiency anemia (choice
D) can result in microcytic hypochromic red blood cells, which can impair oxygen transport and lead to tissue hypoxia, but it is not directly associated with a significant potential for bleeding.
Question 5 of 5
A patient has been diagnosed with Guillain-Barre Syndrome. Which of the following statements is the most applicable when discussing the impairments with Guillain-Barre Syndrome with the patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct statement is that Guillain-Barre Syndrome causes muscle weakness in the legs. This muscle weakness typically starts in the legs and can progress to the upper body.
Choice A is incorrect as while most cases do improve, the recovery time can vary.
Choice B is incorrect as Guillain-Barre Syndrome primarily affects muscle weakness rather than sensation.
Choice D is incorrect as severe cases of Guillain-Barre Syndrome can lead to respiratory muscle weakness, impacting breathing.